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UPSC Current Affairs Quiz

πŸ“° Daily UPSC Current Affairs Quiz

Stay updated with the latest events that matter for your UPSC preparation!

βœ… Strengthen your daily current affairs
βœ… Test your knowledge with quick, relevant questions
βœ… Build a strong foundation for Prelims and Mains

All the best for your preparation! πŸ™‚

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

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31st December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the subtropical high-pressure belts?

2 / 5

2)

The formation of various landforms on the Earth’s surface is influenced by:

  1. The type of rock and its resistance to weathering and erosion
  2. The intensity and duration of tectonic activity in a region
  3. The gravitational pull of the Moon, which directly shapes landforms

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3)

In the Earth’s inner core, the primary reason for its solid state, despite extremely high temperatures, is attributed to:

4 / 5

4)

Match the following landforms with the processes responsible for their formation:

LandformsProcess
1. HoodoosA. Wind erosion
2. CirquesB. Glacial erosion
3. Oxbow lakesC. Chemical weathering
4. YardangsD. River erosion

Codes:

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):
 The Amazon Rainforest is the largest tropical rainforest in the world and is often referred to as the β€œlungs of the Earth”.

Reason (R):
 The Amazon Rainforest produces a significant amount of the world’s oxygen and absorbs large quantities of carbon dioxide.

Which of the following is correct?

Your score is

The average score is 66%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

30th December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements about soil classification:

  1. Alluvial soils are formed by the deposition of sediments by rivers and are highly fertile.
  2. Black soils are rich in iron and aluminum oxides and are found in tropical and subtropical regions.
  3. Laterite soils are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall and are suitable for agriculture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements about solar eclipses:

  1. A total solar eclipse occurs when the Moon completely covers the Sun, as seen from Earth, and can only occur during a new moon.
  2. An annular solar eclipse occurs when the Moon is too close to Earth to completely cover the Sun, resulting in a β€œring of fire” appearance.
  3. A partial solar eclipse occurs when only a part of the Sun is obscured by the Moon, and it can be observed from a larger geographic area compared to a total solar eclipse.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

3)

Which of the following is a key difference between tornadoes and hurricanes?

4 / 5

4)

The Hevea brasiliensis species is associated with which of the following?

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements about La NiΓ±a:

  1. La NiΓ±a often leads to wetter-than-average conditions in Southeast Asia and drier-than-average conditions in the southern United States.
  2. La NiΓ±a events are typically shorter in duration and less frequent than El NiΓ±o events each time.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Your score is

The average score is 24%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

29th December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements about the Westerlies:

  1. The Westerlies are prevailing winds that blow from west to east in the mid-latitudes (between 30Β° and 60Β° latitude) in both hemispheres.
  2. The Westerlies are responsible for the movement of weather systems, such as cyclones and anticyclones, across continents like North America and Europe.
  3. The Westerlies are strongest in the Southern Hemisphere due to the lack of landmasses to disrupt their flow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

2)

Which of the following are impacts of El NiΓ±o on global climate?

  1. Weakening of trade winds in the Pacific Ocean, leading to reduced upwelling of cold, nutrient-rich water off the coast of South America.
  2. Increased frequency of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean due to changes in wind shear.
  3. Drought conditions in Australia and Southeast Asia due to shifts in atmospheric circulation.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

3 / 5

3)

The formation of the Gobi Desert in Central Asia is primarily due to:

  1. Its location is in the rain shadow of the Himalayas and other mountain ranges.
  2. Its position in the continental interior, far from moisture sources like oceans.
  3. The influence of warm ocean currents, which reduce precipitation in the region.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

4 / 5

4)

Why do temperatures increase with altitude in the stratosphere?

  1. The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet (UV) radiation, heating the stratosphere.
  2. The stratosphere is closer to the Sun, receiving more direct solar radiation.
  3. The stratosphere has minimal vertical mixing of air movement.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

5 / 5

5)

The temperature range in polar regions is extremely high during summer and winter. What is/are the reason/reasons?

  1. Prolonged daylight in summer leads to significant heating.
  2. Prolonged darkness in winter leads to extreme cooling.
  3. Low humidity in polar regions allows for rapid temperature changes.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Your score is

The average score is 50%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

27th December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Which of the following adaptations occur in plants found in waterlogged or swampy environments (hydrophytes)?

  1. Aerenchyma tissue
  2. Floating leaves
  3. Reduced root systems

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements regarding Jet streams:

  1. The polar jet stream is formed due to the temperature contrast between the polar and mid-latitude regions.
  2. The El NiΓ±o-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) can cause shifts in the position and strength of jet streams, affecting global weather patterns.
  3. Jet streams are narrow bands of strong winds in the upper troposphere, flowing from east to west.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3 / 5

3)

The vegetation of the tundra biome is characterized by low-growing plants such as mosses, lichens, and dwarf shrubs. The development of forests in the tundra is generally kept in check by one or more of the following conditions:

  1. Permafrost
  2. Short growing season
  3. Strong winds
  4. Low precipitation
  5. Nutrient-poor soils

Which of the following are the most likely and primarily conditions that prevent forest development in the tundra?

Select the correct answer using the code below:

4 / 5

4)

This biome is dominated by coniferous trees such as spruce, fir, and pine, which are adapted to cold winters and short growing seasons. The soil is acidic and nutrient-poor, and the biome is home to animals such as moose, bears, and wolves.

This is the most likely description of:

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is characterized by low pressure and heavy rainfall, and it shifts north and south of the equator with the apparent movement of the sun.
  2. The temperate zone has a lower biodiversity compared to the tropics, but it supports unique ecosystems like deciduous forests and grasslands.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

26th December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following trees:

  1. Sal (Shorea robusta)
  2. Neem (Azadirachta indica)
  3. Banyan (Ficus benghalensis)

How many of the above are evergreen trees?

2 / 5

2)

If the Kuroshio Current were to weaken, what would be the most likely impact on Japan's climate?

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Indian Ocean experiences a reversal of currents due to the seasonal monsoon winds.
  2. The Atlantic Ocean has a higher average salinity compared to the Pacific Ocean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4)

Coral reefs are predominantly found in which of the following conditions?

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements about the Coriolis force and its effects:

  1. The Coriolis force causes ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere to deflect to the right.
  2. The Coriolis force influences atmospheric pressure systems by causing winds to spiral clockwise around low-pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere.
  3. The Coriolis force is responsible for the eastward movement of the polar jet stream, which separates cold polar air from warm tropical air.
  4. The Coriolis force is strongest at the equator and decreases toward the poles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

25th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

With reference to the Deputy speaker in the loksabha, Consider the following statements:

  1. The date of election of the deputy speaker is fixed by the President.
  2. Deputy speaker is directly responsible to the speaker of loksabha.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

2 / 5

2)

Who appoints speaker pro tem in the loksabha?

3 / 5

3)

With reference to the Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction, consider the following statements:

  1. The Supreme Court must tender its opinion to the President on any dispute arising out of any pre-constitutional treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, etc
  2. The opinion expressed by the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact of public importance is binding on the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

4 / 5

4)

Which of the following essentially captures the motive of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?

5 / 5

5)

With reference to the Estimate committee, consider the following statements:

  1. It examines the budget only after they have been voted by the parliament, and not before that.
  2. It’s recommendations are advisory in nature and not binding on the ministries.Β 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 53%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

24th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

With reference to parliamentary privileges, consider the following statements:

  1. Parliamentary privileges are extended to the President and the Attorney General of India as well.
  2. In both civil and criminal cases, members of Parliament cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

2 / 5

2)

What is the significance of notice under Rule 377 in Lok Sabha?

3 / 5

3)

With reference to budgetary procedure of the Parliament, What is the primary effect of the Rule of Lapse?

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements regarding the Departmental standing Committees:

  1. It was set up on the recommendation of rules Committee of loksabha.
  2. Main function of the committee is to consider the demand for grants for the concerned ministries and departments before they are discussed and voted in the loksabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5)

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Only the Prime Minister has to take the Oath of Secrecy and not the other ministers.
  2. The Prime Minister holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 45%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

23rd December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements regarding Financial bills (II) under Article 117(3):

  1. A financial bill contains provision involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of India but doesn’t include any of the matters mentioned in the article 110.
  2. It is introduced only in Lok Sabha and not in Rajyasabha and require recommendation of the president.
  3. In case of disagreement, the president can summon a joint sitting of the two houses to resolve the deadlock.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements regarding Private bills :

  1. It is introduced by any members other than a minister.
  2. Its introduction in the Parliament requires one month’s notice.
  3. It is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department.
  4. Private bill require support of at least 55 members to be introduced.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements the No confidence motion:

  1. No confidence motion is mentioned in the Constitution of India under article 75.
  2. It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of minister.
  3. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements regarding the Adjournment motion :

  1. It is introduced in the parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of some members to be admitted.
  2. It involves an element of censure against the government, and if an adjournment motion is passed, the Council of Ministers must resign from office.
  3. Both loksabha and Rajyasabha is permitted to make use of this device.
  4. Adjournment motion should not raise a question of privilege revive discussion on matter that has been discussed in the same session.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements regarding Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament:

  1. Zero Hour is mentioned in the Constitution of India.
  2. Members can raise issues of urgent public importance without prior notice during Zero Hour.
  3. Zero Hour typically starts immediately after Question Time.
  4. The Speaker/Chairman has the discretion to allow or reject issues raised during Zero Hour.

Which of the statements are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

22nd December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements regarding Leader of the opposition :

  1. The position of Leader of the Opposition is a constitutional post.
  2. The Leader of the Opposition is decided by the President of India when no party secures the required seats.

Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

  1. The date of election of the speaker is fixed by the President.
  2. Whenever the loksabha is dissolved, the speaker vacates his office immediately.
  3. He summons and preside over the joint sitting of the two houses of Parliament.
  4. When resolution for the removal of the speaker is under consideration of the house he can’t preside at the sitting on the House and also he can’t speak and take part in the proceedings of the house at a time.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements regarding the Public account committee :

  1. The committee has 30 members from loksabha only.
  2. The chairman of the committee is appointed from amongst its members by the speaker.
  3. As per Constitution of India, Chairman of the committee must be from opposition party.
  4. The primary function of the committee is to examine the appropriation accounts and the finances account of union government and any other account laid before the Lok Sabha.

How many of the above statements are correct?

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements about a Whip in the context of Indian parliamentary procedures:

  1. A whip is a directive issued by a political party to its members.
  2. Whips are mandatory for all members of the party, as specified in the Constitution of India.
  3. Whips are issued only for money bills.
  4. Defiance of a whip can lead to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.

Which of the above statements are correct?

5 / 5

5)

With reference to the powers of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, in which of the following areas do they have equal status?

  1. Introduction and passage of money bills or finance bills dealing with taxation.
  2. Voting on demands for grants.
  3. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.
  4. Approval of ordinances issued by the President.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

20th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

With reference to contempt of court, consider the following statements:

  1. Contempt of court is defined under the Constitution of India.
  2. The Supreme Court has ruled that it has the power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts, and tribunals.
  3. All cases related to contempt of court require the prior permission of the Attorney General of India.

Which of the above statements is/are Incorrect?

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements regarding executive powers of the Governor :

  1. All the executive actions of the government of a state are formally taken in his name.
  2. He appoints and removes the State Election Commissioner of the state.
  3. He can recommend an Constitutional emergency in a state to the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements regarding different types of pardoning powers:

  1. Remission refers to the substitution of a lighter form of punishment in place of a more severe one
  2. Respite denotes reducing the period of sentence without changing it’s character.
  3. Pardon denotes removal of both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishment and disqualification.

How many of the above statements is/ are correct?

4 / 5

4)

Which of the following Constitution amendment Act made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill?

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements regarding Zonal councils :

  1. Zonal council are the Constitution bodies under article 263 of the Constitution.
  2. The Prime minister is the common chairman of the five zonal councils.
  3. Eastern zonal council includes North East region also.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

19th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements regarding Inter state water disputes :

  1. President may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
  2. Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
  3. A river board is established by the President on the request of the state government concerned to advise them.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

2)

Which of the following bills require the President’s recommendation before introduction in the Parliament ?

  1. Money bills under article 110
  2. Financial bills under article 117
  3. Bill altering the state boundaries under article 3.
  4. Bill that impose restrictions upon freedom of trade under article 304.
  5. A bill which varies the meaning of the expression β€œagricultural income” as defined for the purpose of the enactment relating to Indian income tax.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements :

Statement I : A bill affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributed to states can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.

Statement II : To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the constitution lays down that such type of bills can be introduced in the Parliament with the prior recommendation of the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements regarding statutory grants under article 275 of the Constitution :

  1. The statutory grants under article 275 are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
  2. Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state.
  3. These grants are charged on the Public account of India every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative subjects :

  1. In case of overlapping between the Union list and state list, the former would prevail.
  2. In case of overlapping between the Union list and concurrent list, the latter would prevail.
  3. In case of overlapping between the Concurrent list and state list, the former would prevail.

Select the incorrect statement using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

18th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the Constitution of India, the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
  2. The Constitution provides that a member must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency for election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

2 / 5

2)

Under which the following circumstances, The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the state list?

  1. When the Rajyasabha passes a resolution with special majority.
  2. When a national emergency is declared.
  3. When the state legislature of two or more states pass resolution requesting the Parliament to enact laws on matter in the state list.
  4. To implement international agreement , treaties or convention.
  5. When the President’s rule is imposed in a state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3)

Under which of the following circumstances can Members of Parliament be disqualified under the provisions of the 10th Schedule?

  1. If a member voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket they were elected to the house.
  2. If any independently elected member joins any political party.
  3. If a member is found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements regarding ordinance making powers of the President under article 123 of the Constitution :

  1. An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws.
  2. The President can promulgate only when both the houses of Parliament are in session.
  3. The Constitution of India requires that whenever a bill seeking to replace an ordinance is introduced in the house, a statement explaining the circumstances that had necessitated immediately legislation by ordinance should also be placed before the house.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following regarding the Scheduled and Tribal Areas:

  1. The President is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area.
  2. Each state having Scheduled Areas has to establish a Tribal Advisory Council to advise on the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Areas.
  3. The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular Act of Parliament or the State Legislature does not apply to a Scheduled Area, or applies with special modifications and exceptions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Your score is

The average score is 75%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

17th December(Economy)

1 / 5

What is the primary purpose of the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) introduced by the RBI?

2 / 5

Which of the following statements correctly describes the β€œCurrency Deposit Ratio”?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Standing Deposit Facility (SDF):

  1. The Standing Deposit Facility is a non-collateral open-ended instrument tool for liquidity management and financial stability.
  2. The Standing Deposit Facility is available at the RBI’s discretion.
  3. Deposits under the SDF won’t be eligible for CRR maintenance, but they will be an eligible asset for maintenance of the SLR.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following steps can be taken to reduce fiscal deficit?

  1. Increasing taxes
  2. Increasing external commercial borrowings
  3. Disinvestment of public sector enterprise
  4. Increasing revenue expenditure

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Treasury Bills (T-Bills):

  1. T-Bills are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India.
  2. T-Bills are short-term securities with maturities ranging from 14 days to 364 days.
  3. T-Bills are sold through auctions conducted by the RBI.
  4. T-Bills carry a fixed interest rate, which is paid periodically.

Which of the following options is correct?

Your score is

The average score is 35%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

16th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Stagflation:

  1. It is caused by demand pull inflation.
  2. It is characterized by high growth with low inflation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Which of the following transactions are classified as capital account transactions in a country’s balance of payments?

  1. Foreign direct investment
  2. External commercial borrowings
  3. Dividend payments to foreign investors
  4. Interest payments on foreign loans
  5. Foreign portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Livestock census:

  1. It is conducted by department of Economic Affairs.
  2. The census is conducted every 5 years.
  3. India has world’s largest livestock population.

How many of the above statements are correct?

4 / 5

Which of the following is/are the examples of Transfer Payment(s)?

  1. Unemployment allowance
  2. Payment of salary
  3. Social security payments
  4. Old age pension
  5. Payment of taxes
  6. Housing subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

What is a β€œCrypto Winter” in the context of the cryptocurrency market?

Your score is

The average score is 53%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

15th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Urea Gold:

  1. Urea Gold is a sulphur-fortified urea fertiliser developed by Ministry of Agriculture.
  2. Indian soils are deficient in sulphur, a nutrient essential for oilseeds and pulses, making Urea Gold a beneficial fertiliser.
  3. Urea Gold improves nitrogen use efficiency by releasing it gradually.
  4. Urea Gold helps farmers reduce urea consumption, potentially saving costs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Which of the following brings out the β€˜Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. An increase in a bond’s demand leads to a decrease in its selling price, which in turn causes an increase in its yield.
  2. Rising bond yields increase the government’s borrowing costs, as it must pay higher returns to investors.
  3. Rising US bond yields attract foreign investors, who shift from emerging market equities to US bonds, seeking lower risk and higher returns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following policies help to raise interest rates unambiguously and thereby lead to appreciation of currency?

5 / 5

Which one of the following functions as an automatic stabilizer in the context of fiscal and monetary policies of an economy?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

13th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Nominal and Real GDP:

  1. Nominal GDP is calculated using current prices and it is not adjusted for inflation.
  2. Real GDP is the inflation-adjusted GDP of a country which reflects the value of final goods and services produced by an economy in a given year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Which of the following correctly describes "Anchor Investors"?

3 / 5

Which term is used in economics to describe a strategy that reduces risk by taking a position in a security or asset to offset potential losses?

4 / 5

Which of the following constitute broad money in the economy?

  1. Current deposit with the banking system.
  2. Certificates of deposit issued by the bank.
  3. Currency with the public.
  4. Demand deposit with the post office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Which of the following is a bond through which Indian entities can raise money from foreign markets in dollar and dominated in rupees?

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

12th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Which one of the following situations best reflects β€œReverse flipping”, often talked about in media recently with reference to India in context of finance?

2 / 5

β€œExtended credit facility”, β€œThe flexible credit line” and β€œThe stand-by agreement” are related to the provision of lending by which of the following?

3 / 5

How many of the following is/are example(s) of β€˜Near Money’?

  1. Treasury Bill.
  2. Painting.
  3. Certificate of deposit.
  4. Bonds near their redemption date.
  5. Government securities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

4 / 5

The situation where the equilibrium level of real GDP falls short of potential GDP is known as:

5 / 5

Which of the following actions can be taken to curb deflation in the economy?

  1. Increase the money supply in the economy.
  2. RBI sells G-Secs in the market.
  3. Raise interest rates.
  4. Decrease the reverse repo rate.
  5. Increase transfer payments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

11th December(Economy)

1 / 5

In the context of budgetary process, which of the following statements is/are correct about a vote-on-account and an interim budget?

  1. A vote-on-account contains only the expenditure of the government’s budget, while an interim budget is a complete set of accounts.
  2. A vote-on-account cannot change the tax regime under any circumstances.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

In the context of the Central Bank Digital Currency or e-Rupee initiative of the RBI, consider the following statements about the e-Rupee:

  1. The e-Rupee is expected to increase the effectiveness of monetary policy transmission by allowing for more precise control over the money supply.
  2. The introduction of the e-Rupee may affect the lending capacity of commercial banks.
  3. The e-Rupee is likely to promote financial inclusion by expanding access to financial services for underserved populations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Price Index (CPI):

  1. CPI doesn’t represent the inflation in capital and intermediate goods.
  2. The base year for CPI is 2021-22.
  3. A rising Consumer Price Index (CPI) erodes the purchasing power of citizens by reducing the value of money.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

In the context of finance, the term β€œfront running” refers to,

5 / 5

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true if a country experiences a decrease in its Capital-Output Ratio (COR) over time?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

10th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian economy:

  1. Foreign portfolio investment in India has increased over the last 5 years.
  2. The external debt to GDP ratio has decreased over the last 5 years.
  3. The current account surplus has decreased consistently over the last 5 years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Β Which of the following are likely implications of a higher fiscal deficit?

  1. Higher inflation in the economy
  2. Higher interest rate in the economy
  3. Lower saving rate in the economy
  4. Persistent higher economic growth rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following is the primary purpose of open market operation conducted by the central bank?

4 / 5

Which of the following best describe the term β€œBitcoin halving”, sometimes seen in the news?

5 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. An increase in the monetary base will always lead to a proportionate increase in the money supply.
  2. The money multiplier is constant and does not change in response to changes in the economy.
  3. An increase in the money multiplier will lead to an increase in the money supply, assuming the monetary base remains constant.
  4. A decrease in the monetary base will always lead to a decrease in the money supply.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

9th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Which of the following is most likely to lead to inflation?

2 / 5

Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in a depreciation of the Indian rupee?

  1. An increase in interest rates by the United States Federal Reserve.
  2. Accelerating GDP growth and increased forex reserves.
  3. Widening trade deficit and reduced foreign investment.
  4. Persistently high inflation in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

With reference to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), consider the following statements:

  1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is released by Department of Economic Affairs.
  2. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) does not represent the inflation in services.
  3. The WPI helps in economic forecasting and maintaining price stability.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Indian economy:

  1. Capital expenditure has decreased steadily over the last 5 years.
  2. GST collection have consistently increased over the last 5 years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Which of the following is/are the most likely implications if India’s international trade is settled in Rupees?

  1. It may reduce India’s dependence on the US dollar for international trade.
  2. It shall lead to a manifold decrease in India’s forex reserves.
  3. It may lead to an increase in Indian exports to countries with forex deficits.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 10%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

8th December(Geography)

1 / 5

Which of the following statements about the glacial cycle is/are correct?

  1. The glacial cycle consists of alternating periods of glaciation (ice ages) and interglacial periods (warmer phases).

  2. During glaciation, sea levels rise due to the accumulation of ice on land.

  3. Interglacial periods are characterized by the retreat of glaciers and the formation of glacial landforms such as moraines and drumlins.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

Which of the following is/are the geologic features that can be seen in a Deltaic Region?

  1. Estuaries

  2. Levees

  3. Oxbow Lakes

  4. Distributaries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following countries is NOT part of the Nile River Basin?

4 / 5

With reference to Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

5 / 5

The corona, a series of colored rings around the Sun or Moon, is caused by:

Your score is

The average score is 44%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

6th December(Geography)

1 / 5

The boundary between the Earth's mantle and core, known as the Gutenberg discontinuity, is characterized by a significant change in:

2 / 5

Which of the following is/are evidence supporting the theory of continental drift?

  1. The presence of identical rock formations and mountain ranges on different continents.

  2. The discovery of mid-ocean ridges and seafloor spreading.

  3. The distribution of glacial deposits and striations in regions that are now near the equator.

  4. The alignment of volcanic activity along plate boundaries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements about the distribution of water on Earth is/are correct?

  1. The Arctic and Antarctic ice sheets contain about ~68% of Earth's total freshwater.

  2. Atmospheric water vapor accounts for around 1% of Earth's total water, but it plays a crucial role in the water cycle.

  3. Soil moisture accounts for a larger volume of freshwater than all the world's rivers combined.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following statements about ocean waves is/are correct?

  1. Tsunamis are caused by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides, and they have long wavelengths and high speeds in deep water.

  2. Rogue waves are unusually large and unpredictable waves that can occur in the open ocean due to constructive interference of smaller waves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Which of the following statements about earthquakes is/are correct?

  1. The focus of an earthquake is the point on the Earth's surface directly above the origin of the seismic waves.

  2. The Richter scale measures the total energy released by an earthquake, while the Mercalli scale measures the intensity of shaking at a specific location.

  3. Deep-focus earthquakes occur at divergent plate boundaries and are associated with subduction zones.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

5th December(Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements about Earth’s magnetic field:

  1. The magnetosphere protects Earth from solar wind by deflecting charged particles.

  2. Earth’s magnetic field is generated by the movement of molten iron in the inner core.

  3. The magnetic equator is the line where Earth’s magnetic field is strongest.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements about the Earth's hemispheres:

  1. During the equinoxes, the Sun is directly overhead at the Equator, but the length of daylight is longer in the hemisphere experiencing spring.

  2. The tilt of the Earth’s axis is responsible for the variation in the length of daylight between the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The albedo effect of clouds is stronger for low-altitude clouds because they are thicker and denser, reflecting more incoming solar radiation compared to high-altitude clouds. 
  2. Clouds have a greater warming effect during the day because they trap more incoming solar radiation than they reflect outgoing infrared radiation. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The asteroid belt is located between Mars and Jupiter. 
  2. The asteroid belt is primarily composed of icy bodies similar to those found in the Kuiper Belt. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Consider the following statements :
 Assertion (A): Stratovolcanoes are more explosive than shield volcanoes.
 Reason (R): Stratovolcanoes are composed of alternating layers of lava and ash.

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

4th December(Geography)

1 / 5

The Deccan Traps, one of the largest volcanic features on Earth, were formed due to:

2 / 5

The formation of various landforms on the Earth's surface is influenced by:

  1. The type of rock and its resistance to weathering and erosion.

  2. The intensity and duration of tectonic activity in a region.

  3. The climate and its impact on erosional and depositional processes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements about Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) is/are correct?

  1. Higher OMT in tropical regions is associated with decreased intensity of tropical cyclones.

  2. Higher OMT contributes to sea level rise through thermal expansion of seawater.

Select the correct answer using code given below :

4 / 5

Consider the following statements

Statement I: Oxbow lakes are formed when a meandering river cuts off a meander loop, creating a crescent-shaped lake.
 Statement II: Oxbow lakes are typically found in the youthful stage of a river's development.

5 / 5

Consider the following:

  1. Earth's axial tilt

  2. Greenhouse gases

  3. Oceanic convection currents

  4. Earth's revolution around the Sun

  5. Magnetic reversals

Which of the above are responsible for seasonal changes on Earth?

Your score is

The average score is 74%

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Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

3rd December (Geography)

1 / 5

Β Which of the following statements about fault types is/are correct?

  1. Thrust faults are a type of reverse fault with a low angle of dip. 
  2. Strike-slip faults are responsible for the formation of rift valleys. 
  3. The East African Rift Valley is an example of a divergent fault system. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

Consider the following statements :

  1. P-waves cause particles in the ground to move in a circular motion, similar to ocean waves, which makes them highly destructive.

  2. Surface waves travel faster than body waves (P-waves and S-waves) and are responsible for the initial tremors felt during an earthquake.

  3. Both P-waves and S-waves are reflected at the MohorovičiΔ‡ discontinuity (Moho), where their speeds decrease due to a change in rock density.

  4. S-waves are refracted when they pass through the Earth's mantle, creating a shadow zone between 105Β° and 140Β° from the epicenter.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

3 / 5

How many of the following landform/s is/are formed by erosion?

  1. Moraines

  2. Deltas

  3. ArΓͺtes

  4. Alluvial fans

4 / 5

Which of the following statements about the β€œthe Mid-Atlantic Ridge” is/are correct?

  1. The ridge is a convergent boundary where oceanic plates are subducting beneath continental plates.

  2. The rate of seafloor spreading at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is approximately 2.5 cm per year.

  3. It is older than the Pacific Ring of Fire in terms of geological activity.

5 / 5

The formation of various landforms on the Earth's surface is influenced by:

  1. The type of rock and its resistance to weathering and erosion.

  2. The intensity and duration of tectonic activity in a region.

  3. The climate and its impact on erosional and depositional processes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

2nd December(Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding "Atmospheric pressure":

  1. Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, with the change occurring in the troposphere.

  2. High-pressure systems are associated with clear skies and stable weather conditions.

  3. Low pressure systems are associated with rising air and cloud formation.

  4. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is approximately 1200 mm of mercury.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Consider the following statement:

Assertion (A): The stratosphere contains the ozone layer which contains ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
 Reason (R): The absorption of UV radiation in the stratosphere causes a temperature inversion where temperature increases with altitude.

Options:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements about latitude and longitude is/are correct?

  1. Latitude lines are parallel to each other and measure distances north or south of the Equator.

  2. Longitude lines converge at the poles and measure distances east or west of the Prime Meridian.

  3. The International Date Line is located at 180Β° longitude and is exactly opposite the Prime Meridian.

  4. The Tropic of Cancer is located at 23.5Β° south latitude.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
 Statement II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which of the following options is correct?

5 / 5

Collision–Coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

1st December (Modern History)

1 / 5

1) Which of the following was NOT a consequence of the British suppression of the Revolt of 1857?

2 / 5

2) Which of the following statements best explains the underlying cause of the Revolt of 1857?

3 / 5

3) Consider the following statements about British economic policies in India:

  1. The British imposed restrictions on the entry of British goods into India until 1858.
  2. After the mid-19th century, significant amounts of British capital were invested in the Indian economy.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements :

  1. Shuja-ud-daula maintained Awadh’s autonomy by openly defying the symbolic authority of the Mughal emperor.
  2. Shuja-ud-daula allied with the Marathas against Ahmad Shah Abdali during the Third Battle of Panipat (1761).

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

5) The Battle of Swally was fought in 1612 between:

Your score is

The average score is 42%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

29th November (Modern History)

1 / 5

1) The β€œForward Policy” of the British East India Company, initiated during Lord Auckland’s tenure, primarily aimed at:

2 / 5

2) Which of the following statements is not a consequence of the Treaty of Sagauli (1816) between the British East India Company and Nepal?

3 / 5

3) What was a notable outcome of European trading companies, particularly the British East India Company, establishing their presence in India?

4 / 5

4) Where was the first Portuguese fort established in India?

5 / 5

5) Which of the following best describes the impact of the Carnatic Wars on British expansion in India?

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

28th November (Modern History)

1 / 5

1) Β The Third Battle of Panipat (1761) was a pivotal event in Indian history. Which of the following statements accurately describes its impact on British expansion in India?

2 / 5

2) The dual administration system in Bengal after the Battle of Plassey (1757) is best described as:

3 / 5

3) The Treaty of Allahabad (1765) was significant because it:

4 / 5

4) What was the significance of the β€œRissala system” introduced by Haidar Ali?

5 / 5

5) What was the primary purpose of the β€œCartaz System” introduced by the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean region?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

27th November(Polity)

1 / 5

With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions, which of the following are compulsory provisions?

  1. Organisation of a Gram Sabha in a village.
  2. Direct election to all seats in panchayats at village, intermediate, and district levels.
  3. Granting financial powers to the panchayats.
  4. Granting authority and responsibilities to panchayats to prepare plans for economic development.
  5. Establishment of a State Finance Commission and a State Election Commission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding β€œGram nyayalayas” :

  1. The primary objective of establishing Gram Nyayalayas is to provide speedy, affordable, and substantial justice to people in rural areas.
  2. The Gram nyayalayas exercise the power of both criminal and civil courts.
  3. The Gram nyayalayas shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the evidence act, 1872 but guided by the principles of natural justice.

Select the correct answer using the code given below;

3 / 5

With reference to legislative procedure in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Money bill can be introduced only in the State legislative Council and not in the State Legislative Assembly.
  2. The Constitution provides for the mechanism of joint house sitting of two houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock between them over a passage of a bill, however the same is not available for the State legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor:

  1. He is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
  2. The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the President of India.
  3. He decides on the disqualification of members of the state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

Which of the following accurately captures the essence of judicial activism?

Your score is

The average score is 56%

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Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

26th November(Polity)

1 / 5

Under which constitutional provision does the Supreme Court of India possess the authority to issue directions or orders necessary for achieving complete justice, even if it entails departing from existing laws or regulations?

2 / 5

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following parliamentary committees enforces the code of conduct of members of Parliament, examines cases of misconduct, and recommends appropriate action to maintain discipline and decorum in Parliament?

3 / 5

With reference to the Parliament, which of the following is the primary purpose of the panel of chairpersons of Lok Sabha?

4 / 5

With reference to Cabinet committees, consider the following statements:

  1. They are set up by the President according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
  2. The Cabinet committees are not mentioned in the Constitution under article 75.
  3. The non-cabinet ministers are not debarred from their membership.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Parliament:

  1. As per the 91st Amendment Act of 2003, the total number of ministers in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Parliament.
  2. As per Article 75 of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

Your score is

The average score is 54%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

25th November(Polity)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Indian polity:

  1. The Constitution requires that a person must prove their majority in the Lok Sabha before being appointed as the Prime Minister.
  2. The Constitution contains a detailed and specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Vice President of India:

  1. The post of Vice President has been taken from the British Constitution.
  2. When a vacancy occurs in the office of the Vice President, his/her duties are performed by the President until a new President is elected, resigned, removal, death, or otherwise, the Vice President acts as the President until a new President is elected.
  3. Both elected and nominated members of parliament consist of the electoral college for the election of the Vice President.
  4. Only the Rajya Sabha can initiate the removal of the Vice President. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by a effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following participate in the election of the President?

  1. The elected members of the Houses of Parliament.
  2. The nominated members of both Houses of Parliament.
  3. The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Centre-State relations:

  1. The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the Union Territories. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
  2. The Governor of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram may make laws over that area of Parliament, applying to a tribal area (autonomous district) in the state or applying with specified modifications and exceptions.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

With reference to the money bill, consider the following statements:

  1. A money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and that too with the recommendation of the President.
  2. Defeat of a money bill in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the government.
  3. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes is also deemed to be a money bill.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 55%

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Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

24th November (Modern History)

1 / 5

What was the primary reason for zamindars defying the Mughal state in the 18th century?

2 / 5

Which of the following statements best reflects the British recruitment policy after the late 1880s?

3 / 5

The β€œcentral preoccupation” of imperial policy in India was related with which of the following?

4 / 5

The East India Company (EIC) was granted a royal charter in 1600 primarily to:

5 / 5

Which one of the following is the correct statement with reference to The English East India Company?

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

22th November (A&C)

1 / 5

1) Hastyāyurveda is a treatise on elephants which considers various facts about wild and pet elephants. It was written by:

2 / 5

2) With reference to the texts found during the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:

  1. Animal and human-like figures are found on the seals.
  2. The unicorn symbol was frequently found.
  3. Some seals appear to have mathematical significance.
  4. Indus seals were used primarily as currency.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

3) β€˜Gadi fanams’ and β€˜Pagoda coins’ were issued by which of the following dynasties?

4 / 5

4) With reference to Bhaskaracharya’s contributions, consider the following statements:

  1. He introduced the Chakravala method to solve algebraic equations.
  2. He explained that the Earth rotates on its axis, causing day and night.
  3. He accurately calculated the time taken for the Earth to orbit the Sun.

Which of the above statements are correct?

5 / 5

5)

With reference to the contributions of Brahmagupta, consider the following statements:

  1. He defined the use of negative numbers in his book Brahmasphutasiddhanta.
  2. The cyclic method of solving algebraic equations was introduced by him.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 23%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

21st November (Polity)

1 / 5

1) Which of the following signifies fundamental rights?

  1. They constitute the bedrock of democratic system in the country.
  2. They provide necessary conditions for the material and moral protection of man.
  3. They serve as a formidable bulwark of individual liberty.
  4. They facilitate the establishment of rule of law in the country.

Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

2) Which of the following signifies Directive principles of the policies?

  1. They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in political, economic and social spheres in spite of the changes of the party in power.
  2. They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3) "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the

4 / 5

4) The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

5 / 5

5) The landmark judgement, S. R. Bommai is related with which of the following

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

20th November (Medieval History)

1 / 5

1) The ruler of which one of the following dynasties of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

2 / 5

2) Consider the following:

  1. Ahmednagar
  2. Bijapur
  3. Golkonda
  4. Mysore

The Bahmani Kingdom was disintegrated into how many of the above states?

3 / 5

3) In the context of Indian history, which one of the following was referred to as the "Chola lake"?

4 / 5

4) Β With reference to medieval Indian history, the "Group of Junta" was associated with:

5 / 5

5) Who of the following is not associated with the Bhakti Movement?

Your score is

The average score is 34%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

17th November (Economy)

1 / 5

1) Which of the following correctly describes the term "ECOCIDE"?

2 / 5

2) Β Consider the following statements about the Golden Langur:

  1. They belong to a large group of Old-World monkeys called the colobines.
  2. They are diurnal and arboreal in nature and live in troops.
  3. They are endemic to the southern forests of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

3) What is the primary objective of deficit financing in India?

4 / 5

4) What is the significance of the Gorsam Kora Festival?

5 / 5

5) What does the term "Arbitrage" refer to in the context of finance?

Your score is

The average score is 34%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

15th November (World Mapping)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following pairs:

CountryResource-rich in
I. BotswanaDiamond
II. ChileLithium
III. IndonesiaNickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

2 / 5

2) Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

3 / 5

3) Consider the following countries-

  1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia

How many of the above have a border with the North Sea?

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements about the Red Sea-

  1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation.
  2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

5 / 5

5) With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements β€”

  1. The East–West Corridor under the Golden Quadrilateral connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
  2. The Trilateral Highway connects Thailand via Myanmar.
  3. Bangladesh–India–Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi to Kunming (China).

Your score is

The average score is 21%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

14th November (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
  2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to the poles.
 Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

3 / 5

3) The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

4 / 5

4) Consider the following:

  1. Pyroclastic debris
  2. Ash and dust
  3. Nitrogen compounds
  4. Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Your score is

The average score is 56%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

13th November (Ancient History)

1 / 5

1) With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

2 / 5

2) With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

Famous PlacePresent State
1. BhilsaMadhya Pradesh
2. DwarasamudraMaharashtra
3. GirnagarGujarat
4. SthanesvaraUttar Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

3 / 5

3) With reference to scholars/literateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements:

  1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga.
  2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana.
  3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandragupta II.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

4) The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by –

5 / 5

5) With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous

Your score is

The average score is 35%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

12th November (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

The power to increase the number of Judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in:Β 

2 / 5

2)

With reference to the β€˜Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?Β 

  1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
  2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/conciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 / 5

3)

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
  2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
  3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given is correct?

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements:Β 

  1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
  2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
  3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
  4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

5) A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

11th November (Mapping)

1 / 5

1)

Two important rivers, one originating in Jharkhand and another in Odisha, meet a short distance from the coast before flowing into the Bay of Bengal, forming a protected biodiversity area. Which site is this?

2 / 5

2)

Which of the following countries share a land border with Afghanistan?

  1. Azerbaijan
  2. Kyrgyzstan
  3. Tajikistan
  4. Turkmenistan
  5. Uzbekistan

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following pairs:

RiverFlows into
MekongAndaman Sea
VolgaCaspian Sea
ZambeziIndian Ocean

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

4 / 5

4)

Β Consider the following statements:

  1. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometres from each other, but when people are waking up in these cities, it would be different days.
  2. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

5 / 5

5)

Which one of the following pairs of States indicates the easternmost and westernmost States of India?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

10th November

1 / 5

1) This soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall. It occurs in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan Plateau. It is generally poor in nitrogen and humus. Which of the following soils are described in the passage?

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements:

  • Statement I: Mars is considered a potential planet to support life because it shows evidence of the presence of water in some form.
  • Statement II: The atmospheric pressure and temperature conditions on Mars are similar to those on Earth, enabling stable liquid water to exist on its surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

3 / 5

3) Which one of the following stars is the nearest to the Earth?

4 / 5

4) What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?Β 

  1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
  2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
  3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
  4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5) With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:Β 

  1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when β€˜bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
  2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
  3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
  4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 55%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

8th November

1 / 5

1) This soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall. It occurs in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan Plateau. It is generally poor in nitrogen and humus. Which of the following soils are described in the passage?

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements:

  • Statement I: Mars is considered a potential planet to support life because it shows evidence of the presence of water in some form.
  • Statement II: The atmospheric pressure and temperature conditions on Mars are similar to those on Earth, enabling stable liquid water to exist on its surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

3 / 5

3) Which one of the following stars is the nearest to the Earth?

4 / 5

4) What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?Β 

  1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
  2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
  3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
  4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5) With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:Β 

  1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when β€˜bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
  2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
  3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
  4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 48%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

7th November

1 / 5

1) Β With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:Β 

  1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible Pumps.
  2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Β 

2 / 5

2) β€œThe crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” 

Which one of the following is that crop?

3 / 5

3) With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:Β 

  1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop.
  2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
  3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Β 

4 / 5

4) Which one of the following statements best describes the term β€˜Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of theΒ 

5 / 5

5) According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?Β 

  1. Cassava
  2. Damaged wheat grains
  3. Groundnut seeds
  4. Horse gram
  5. Rotten potatoes
  6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

6th November

1 / 5

1) What is the use of biochar in farming?Β 

  1. β€˜Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
  2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
  3. When biochar is a part of the growing- medium, it enables the growing medium /to retain water for longer time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Β 

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements:Β 

  1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
  2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
  3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Β 

3 / 5

3) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?Β 

  1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
  2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do.
  3. The mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:Β 

4 / 5

4) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:Β 

  1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
  2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
  3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
  4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Β 

5 / 5

5) Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?Β 

  1. Construction of base road
  2. Improvement of agricultural soil
  3. Production of cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 45%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

5th November

1 / 5

1) With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:Β 

  1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
  2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
  3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
  4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

2) Consider the following pairs:

S. NoInternational agreement /set-up Subject
1Alma-Ata DeclarationHealthcare of the peopleΒ 
2Hague ConventionΒ Biological and chemical weaponsΒ 
3Talanoa DialogueGlobal climate changeΒ 
4Under2 CoalitionChild rightsΒ 

 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?Β 

3 / 5

3) The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

4 / 5

4) β€˜With reference to β€˜Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements :Β 

  1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
  2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Β 

5 / 5

5) With reference to 'Forest Carbon Partnership Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct?Β 

  1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
  2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management.
  3. It assists the countries in their 'REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and

Forest Degradation+)' efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.Β 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.Β 

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

4th November

1 / 5

1) .With reference to an organization known as β€˜BirdLife International', which of the following statements is/are correct?Β 

  1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
  2. The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' originated from this organization.
  3. It identifies the sites known/ referred to as β€˜Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas'.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

2) Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

3 / 5

3) The β€˜Fortaleza Declaration', recently in the news, is related to the affairs of

4 / 5

4) With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?Β 

  1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
  2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.Β 

5 / 5

5) Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana' has been launched for

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

3rd November

1 / 5

1) With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:Β 

  1. Worker productivity (Rupee per worker at 2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
  2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
  3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased.
  4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Β 

2 / 5

2) Β the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?Β 

  1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
  3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3) Β In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept β€œIAEA Safeguards” while others are not?

4 / 5

4) In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?Β 

  1. Housing loans owed by households.
  2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
  3. Treasury bills

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5) Β With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?Β 

  1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
  2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
  3. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.
  4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:Β 

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

2nd November

1 / 5

1) With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?

2 / 5

2) If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?Β 

  1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
  2. Opening up to more foreign banks
  3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility

Select the correct answer using the code given below:Β 

3 / 5

3) With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:Β 

  1. Aurang - In-charge of treasury of the StateΒ 
  2. Banian - Indian agent of the East India CompanyΒ 
  3. Mirasidar - Designated revenue payer to the StateΒ 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?Β 

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements with reference to the Slave system during the Delhi Sultanates:

  1. The slave system was not prevalent among the Hindus as it was among the Muslims.
  2. The property and lives of the slaves was considered as property of their masters.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements with respect to the Delhi Sultanates:

  1. The Priests were often given grants of tax-free land for their maintenance.
  2. The caste system was very rigid.
  3. There was no prohibition on inter caste dining and marriages among peasants.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

1st November

1 / 5

1) With reference to the Ancient India, consider the following pairs:

Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Officer: Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Duty

  1. Bhagaluga Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Treasurer
  2. Mahishi Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Chronicler
  3. SutaΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Collector of taxes

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

2 / 5

2) Which of the following statements are true with reference to the Later Vedic Age?

  1. The texts of later vedic age have wider knowledge of Indian geography than the texts of Rig Veda.
  2. Brahmanas were exempted from punishments and taxation.
  3. Marriage can only be allowed between the members of the same gotra.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3) Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Rig Vedic Society?

  1. Professions were hereditary during the period.
  2. There was a strict ban on inter dining between various occupational classes of the society.
  3. Widow remarriage is allowed during Rig Vedic period.
  4. Indra was the most popular of all the early vedic gods.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4) Which of the following statements are not correct with reference to the Permanent Settlement System?

  1. It was introduced by Cornwallis in 1820.
  2. It was introduced in Madras and Bombay.
  3. Under this system half of the realised amount belongs to the zamindars.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Mirror newspaper:

  1. It was established by Debendra Nath Tagore.
  2. It was an English language newspaper.
  3. It was started before the 1857 revolt.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 24%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

31th October

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements:Β 

  1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.Β 
  2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.Β 
  3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Β 

2 / 5

2) In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

3 / 5

3) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?Β 

  1. PreambleΒ 
  2. Directive Principles of State PolicyΒ 
  3. Fundamental DutiesΒ 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4) Which of the following statements are not correct with reference to the Birsa Munda?

  1. He founded a new religion called Birsait.
  2. He started a movement called Ulgulan.
  3. He criticized the church for religious conversions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5) Who among the following were the founders of the Madras Mahajan Sabha?

  1. Veeraraghavachariar
  2. Subramania Iyer
  3. Ananda Charlu

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 23%

0%

Current Affairs Quiz (5 Q/A) ( Time : 5 min )

0%

30th October

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements :

  1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
  2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
  3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

2) When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed byΒ 

3 / 5

3) Consider the following statements with reference to the Composition of the Constituent Assembly:

  1. The Constituent Assembly was constituted as per the Cripps Proposals.
  2. The British Government nominated a few members to the Constituent Assembly.
  3. The nominees of the Princely states were nominated by the princes.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

4 / 5

4) Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

5 / 5

5) With reference to the fifth schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. The Governor of the state can make rules regulating the number of members of the tribes advisory council.
  2. The Governor of the state can make regulation on prohibition on the transfer of land among members of the Scheduled Tribes in scheduled areas.Β 
  3. The President can increase the area of any scheduled area in a state after consultation with the Governor of that State.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 56%

0%

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