UnderStand UPSC
Conquer with Confidence.

Answer: (d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

• Single Constitution is regarded as a unitary feature because, unlike some classic federations, India generally has one Constitution for the Union and the States.
• Division of powers between the Centre and States is a federal feature.
• Independent judiciary is also a key federal feature because it interprets the Constitution and adjudicates Centre-State disputes.
• Indestructible States: Indian states do not enjoy an indestructible territorial identity comparable to states in some federations. Parliament can alter their areas, boundaries or names under Article 3. This is treated as a unitary feature.

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: A Habeas Corpus petition need not necessarily be filed by the detained person or a family member. In appropriate circumstances, another person can approach the court on behalf of the detainee.
• Statement 2 is correct: Quo Warranto literally means "by what authority". It challenges the legality of a person's claim to a substantive public office.
• Statement 3 is correct: Mandamus means "we command". It may be issued against a public authority, public corporation, inferior court or tribunal that fails to perform a public/legal duty.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: "Charities and charitable institutions, charitable and religious endowments and religious institutions" fall under Entry 28 of the Concurrent List, meaning both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on the subject.
• Statement 2 is correct: Christian religious institutions are generally administered through community-based churches, societies, boards or trusts, subject to applicable law.
• Statement 3 is correct: Several states have enacted laws providing for governmental regulation or administration of certain Hindu religious and charitable institutions. Article 25(2) also permits the State to regulate secular activities associated with religious practice and enact measures for social welfare and reform.

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 broadens the statutory treatment of secondary evidence, including specified forms of copies, counterparts and oral accounts of document contents.
• Statement 2 is correct: It preserves the rule that courts cannot require disclosure of communications between Ministers and the President of India.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Act expressly recognises electronic and digital records as documents/evidence and lays down provisions governing their admissibility.

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Lokpal's jurisdiction covers the Prime Minister (subject to statutory safeguards), Union Ministers, Members of Parliament and specified categories of public servants, but not the President of India.
• Statement 2 is not correct: A person who is not an Indian resident is not absolutely barred from filing a Lokpal complaint; applicable procedural requirements must be fulfilled.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, not less than 50% of the members must be from among SCs, STs, OBCs, minorities and women - not one-third.