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UPSC Static Quizzes April 2026 | UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Topic-wise UPSC Prelims Static MCQs &
Practice Quizzes for April 2026

UPSC Static Quizzes April 2026 provides topic-wise practice questions and important MCQs for UPSC Prelims preparation. These quizzes help aspirants revise static subjects, improve conceptual clarity, and strengthen exam-oriented preparation. Practice UPSC static GK quizzes regularly to boost accuracy, revision, and performance for the UPSC Civil Services Examination.

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1 April 2026 (Indian Polity)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements regarding Financial bills (II) under Article 117(3):

  1. A financial bill contains provision involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of India but doesn’t include any of the matters mentioned in the article 110.
  2. It is introduced only in Lok Sabha and not in Rajyasabha and require recommendation of the president.
  3. In case of disagreement, the president can summon a joint sitting of the two houses to resolve the deadlock.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

2) Consider following statements regarding the Adjournment motion :

  1. It is introduced in the parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of some members to be admitted.
  2. It involves an element of censure against the government, and if an adjournment motion is passed, the Council of Ministers must resign from office.
  3. Both loksabha and Rajyasabha is permitted to make use of this device.
  4. Adjournment motion should not raise a question of privilege revive discussion on matter that has been discussed in the same session.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3) Consider following statements the No confidence motion:

  1. No confidence motion is mentioned in the Constitution of India under article 75.
  2. It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of minister.
  3. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements regarding Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament:

  1. Zero Hour is mentioned in the Constitution of India.
  2. Members can raise issues of urgent public importance without prior notice during Zero Hour.
  3. Zero Hour typically starts immediately after Question Time.
  4. The Speaker/Chairman has the discretion to allow or reject issues raised during Zero Hour.

Which of the statements are correct?

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements regarding Private bills :

  1. It is introduced by any members other than a minister.
  2. Its introduction in the Parliament requires one month’s notice.
  3. It is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department.
  4. Private bill require support of at least 55 members to be introduced.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 53%

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3 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1) Coral reefs are predominantly found in which of the following conditions?

2 / 5

2) If the Kuroshio Current were to weaken, what would be the most likely impact on Japan's climate?

3 / 5

3) Consider the following statements :

  1. The Indian Ocean experiences a reversal of currents due to the seasonal monsoon winds.
  2. The Atlantic Ocean has a higher average salinity compared to the Pacific Ocean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4) Consider the following trees:

  1. Sal (Shorea robusta)
  2. Neem (Azadirachta indica)
  3. Banyan (Ficus benghalensis)

How many of the above are evergreen trees?

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements about the Coriolis force and its effects:

  1. The Coriolis force causes ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere to deflect to the right.
  2. The Coriolis force influences atmospheric pressure systems by causing winds to spiral clockwise around low-pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere.
  3. The Coriolis force is responsible for the eastward movement of the polar jet stream, which separates cold polar air from warm tropical air.
  4. The Coriolis force is strongest at the equator and decreases toward the poles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 37%

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4 April 2026 (Ancient History)

1 / 5

1) The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by -

2 / 5

2) With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous –

3 / 5

3) With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

Famous PlacePresent State
1. BhilsaMadhya Pradesh
2. DwarasamudraMaharashtra
3. GirnagarGujarat
4. SthanesvaraUttar Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

4 / 5

4) With reference to scholars/literateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements:

  1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga.
  2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana.
  3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandragupta II.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

5) With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

Your score is

The average score is 57%

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6 April 2026 (Geography & Environment)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements about the National Mission on Edible Oils – (NMEO-Oilseeds) :

  1. The SATHI Portal under NMEO-Oilseeds will facilitate a 5-year rolling seed plan to ensure timely availability of high-quality seeds for farmers.
  2. India currently meets 72% of its domestic edible oil demand through domestic production, with the remaining 28% imported.
  3. The mission focuses on expanding oilseed cultivation by targeting rice and potato fallow lands and promoting intercropping.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

2) Consider the following rivers:

  1. Narmada
  2. Tapti
  3. Mahi
  4. Sabarmati

Which of the above rivers flow through rift valleys and are known for their westward flow?

3 / 5

3) With reference to India, "Gurudongmar", "Tsomgo", and "Sela" are the names of:

4 / 5

4) The "laterite soil" of India is primarily formed due to the weathering of:

5 / 5

5) Consider the following pairs :

GlacierMountain Range
1. Satopanth GlacierGarhwal Himalayas
2. Batura GlacierPir Panjal Range
3. Kafni GlacierKumaon Himalayas
4. Milam GlacierNanda devi Range

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Your score is

The average score is 53%

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7 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1) Which of the following is the best example of a glacial valley shaped by the erosive action of glaciers, characterized by U-shaped cross-sections and hanging valleys?

2 / 5

2) The Silent Valley National Park, known for its rich biodiversity, is located in the basin of which river?

3 / 5

3) The formation of the "Marine Terraces" along the Konkan coast is primarily attributed to which of the following geological processes?

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements :

  1. The Sutlej River originates from the Rakshastal Lake and is the easternmost tributary of the Indus River system.
  2. The Malwa Plateau is drained by the Narmada River and is known for its black soil.
  3. The Pir Panjal Range is the southernmost range of the Himalayas and is heavily forested.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

5) Which of the following statements about ocean waves is/are correct?

  1. Tsunamis are caused by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides, and they have long wavelengths and high speeds in deep water.
  2. Rogue waves are unusually large and unpredictable waves that can occur in the open ocean due to constructive interference of smaller waves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 52%

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8 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1) The National Agricultural Code (NAC) is a comprehensive framework aimed at standardizing agricultural practices in India. Which of the following statements about the NAC is/are correct?

  1. The NAC covers only pre-harvest agricultural processes, such as crop selection and land preparation, but excludes post-harvest operations.
  2. One of the key objectives of the NAC is to create a national agricultural code that considers agro-climatic zones and crop types.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

2) Which one of the following tribal groups is dominantly found in the 'blue mountains'?

3 / 5

3) About 70% of the world's lithium, a critical metal used in the production of rechargeable batteries for electric vehicles and electronics, is primarily sourced from which of the following regions?

4 / 5

4)  Kyanite, Sillimanite, and Andalusite, which are abundantly found in the Eastern Ghats of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements about “major and minor ports” in India :

  1. Major ports in India are administered by the Central Government under the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021, while minor ports are managed by the respective State Governments.
  2. Kandla Port in Gujarat is a major port and is known for handling the largest volume of cargo among all Indian ports.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Your score is

The average score is 63%

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9 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements about “Charon “ and discoveries:

  1. Charon is the largest moon in the Solar System, surpassing even Jupiter's Ganymede in size.
  2. Pluto and Charon are considered a "double planet" system due to their mutual orbital dynamics and comparable sizes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

2) Which of the following is geographically closest to Barren Island, the only active volcano in India?

3 / 5

3) Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for considering the Singhbhum Craton as a significant geological formation in India?

4 / 5

4) “This crop is grown in tropical and subtropical regions and requires temperatures between 25°C and 35°C, annual rainfall of 150–250 cm, and fertile, well-drained soil. It is highly sensitive to frost and drought. “

Which one of the following is that crop?

5 / 5

5) Consider the following pairs:

PeaksMountain Ranges
1. KanchenjungaSikkim Himalaya
2. Nanda DeviZaskar Range
3. AnnapurnaKarakoram Range

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

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10 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1) Which of the following indicators is NOT used to calculate the Global Hunger Index (GHI)?

2 / 5

2) With reference to the winter rainfall in Northwest India, consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Northwest India receives winter rainfall due to the Western Disturbances.
 Reason (R): Western Disturbances are low-pressure systems that originate in the Mediterranean region and bring moisture to Northwest India.
 Which of the options given below is correct?

3 / 5

3) Which of the following statements about India's coastal plains is/are correct?

  1. The Western Coastal Plains are broader than the Eastern Coastal Plains and are characterized by the presence of lagoons, backwaters, and estuaries.
  2. The Eastern Coastal Plains are more fertile than the Western Coastal Plains, with major deltas formed by rivers like the Godavari and Krishna.
  3. The Coromandel Coast remains dry during winter due to the retreating northeast monsoon.

Options :

4 / 5

4) What is the primary reason behind the formation of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal?

5 / 5

5) Which one of the following is the most plausible explanation for the formation of the "Kal Baisakhi" storms in Eastern India during summer?

Your score is

The average score is 56%

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11 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1)  Which of the following statements about Karewa formations is/are correct?

  1. The Karewa formations are primarily composed of volcanic rocks and are found in the Western Ghats region of India.
  2. The Karewa soils are highly fertile and support the cultivation of saffron, apples, and other cash crops in the region.

Codes :

2 / 5

2) Which of the following statements about Gucchi cultivation in India is/are correct?

  1. Gucchi is primarily cultivated in the arid regions of Rajasthan and Gujarat, where the dry climate is suitable for its growth.
  2. Gucchi mushrooms require specific climatic conditions which makes their cultivation challenging.

Codes:

3 / 5

3) Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Duns'?

4 / 5

4) Which of the following statements about the Terai region is/are correct?

  1. The Terai region is formed due to the deposition of sediments brought down by rivers from the Himalayas.
  2. The Terai region is unsuitable for agriculture due to its waterlogged and marshy conditions.
  3. The Terai region is characterized by rich biodiversity, including dense forests and grasslands, and is home to several national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.

Codes :

5 / 5

5) "Marine Terraces" along Konkan coast are  attributed to?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

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14 April 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

1) . Which of the following signifies fundamental rights?

  1. They constitute the bedrock of democratic system in the country.
  2. They provide necessary conditions for the material and moral protection of man.
  3. They serve as a formidable bulwark of individual liberty.
  4. They facilitate the establishment of rule of law in the country.

Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

2) The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

3 / 5

3) "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the

4 / 5

4) Which of the following signifies Directive principles of the policies?

  1. They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in political, economic and social spheres in spite of the changes of the party in power.
  2. They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5) The landmark judgement, S. R. Bommai is related with which of the following

Your score is

The average score is 58%

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15 April 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Vice President of India:

  1. The post of Vice President has been taken from the British Constitution.
  2. When a vacancy occurs in the office of the Vice President, his/her duties are performed by the President until a new President is elected, resigned, removal, death, or otherwise, the Vice President acts as the President until a new President is elected.
  3. Both elected and nominated members of parliament consist of the electoral college for the election of the Vice President.
  4. Only the Rajya Sabha can initiate the removal of the Vice President. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by a effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements regarding Centre-State relations:

  1. The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the Union Territories. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
  2. The Governor of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram may make laws over that area of Parliament, applying to a tribal area (autonomous district) in the state or applying with specified modifications and exceptions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3) With reference to the money bill, consider the following statements:

  1. A money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and that too with the recommendation of the President.
  2. Defeat of a money bill in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the government.
  3. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes is also deemed to be a money bill.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements regarding Indian polity:

  1. The Constitution requires that a person must prove their majority in the Lok Sabha before being appointed as the Prime Minister.
  2. The Constitution contains a detailed and specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

5) Which of the following participate in the election of the President?

  1. The elected members of the Houses of Parliament.
  2. The nominated members of both Houses of Parliament.
  3. The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 64%

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16 April 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

1) With reference to the money bill, consider the following statements:

  1. A money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and that too with the recommendation of the President.

  2. Defeat of a money bill in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the government.

  3. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes is also deemed to be a money bill.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements regarding Centre-State relations:

  1. The President can make regulations for the peace, progress, and good government of the certain Union Territories. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

  2. The Governor of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram may likewise direct that an Act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area (autonomous district) in the state or applies with specified modifications and exceptions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3) Which of the following participate in the election of the President?

  1. The elected members of the Houses of Parliament.
  2. The nominated members of both Houses of Parliament.
  3. The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements regarding the Vice President of India:

  1. The post of Vice President has been borrowed from the British Constitution.
  2. When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to the expiry of tenure, resignation, removal, death, or otherwise, the Vice President acts as the President until a new President is elected.
  3. Both elected and nominated members of Parliament consist of the electoral college for the election of the Vice President.
  4. Only the Rajya Sabha can initiate the removal of the Vice President. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by a effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements regarding Indian polity:

  1. The Constitution requires that a person must prove their majority in the Lok Sabha before being appointed as the Prime Minister.
  2. The Constitution contains a detailed and specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 51%

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0%

18 April 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements regarding Parliament:

  • As per the 91st Amendment Act of 2003, the total number of ministers in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of Parliament.
  • As per Article 75 of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

2 / 5

2) With reference to Cabinet committees, Consider the following statements:

  • They are set up by the President according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
  • The Cabinet committees are mentioned in the Constitution under article 75.

The non-cabinet ministers are not debarred from their membership. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3) With reference to the Parliament, which of the following is the primary purpose of the panel of chairpersons of Lok Sabha?

4 / 5

4) With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following parliamentary committees enforces the code of conduct of members of Parliament, examines cases of misconduct, and recommends appropriate action to maintain discipline and decorum in Parliament?

5 / 5

5) Under which constitutional provision does the Supreme Court of India possess the authority to issue directions or orders necessary for achieving complete justice, even if it entails departing from existing laws or regulations?

Your score is

The average score is 49%

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20 April 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

1) Which of the following accurately captures the essence of judicial activism?

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Governor:

  1. He is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
  2. The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the President of India.
  3. He decides on the disqualifications of members of the state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3) With reference to legislative procedure in India, consider the following statements :

  1. Money bill can be introduced only in the State legislative Council and not in the State Legislative Assembly.
  2. The Constitution provides for the mechanism of joint house sitting of two houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock between them over a passage of a bill, however the same is not available for the State legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements regarding “ Gram nyayalayas” :

  1. The primary objective of establishing Gram Nyayalayas is to provide speedy, affordable, and substantial justice to people in rural areas.
  2. The Gram nyayalayas exercise the power of both criminal and civil courts.
  3. The Gram nyayalayas shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the evidence act, 1872 but guided by the principles of natural Justice.

Select the correct answer using the code given below;

5 / 5

5) With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions, which of the following are compulsory provisions?

  1. Organisation of a Gram Sabha in a village.
  2. Direct election to all seats in panchayats at village, intermediate, and district levels.
  3. Granting financial powers to the panchayats.
  4. Granting authority and responsibilities to panchayats to prepare plans for economic development.
  5. Establishment of a State Finance Commission and a State Election Commission. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 53%

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21 April 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following regarding the Scheduled and Tribal Areas:

  1. The President is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area.
  2. Each state having Scheduled Areas has to establish a Tribal Advisory Council to advise on the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Areas.
  3. The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular Act of Parliament or the State Legislature does not apply to a Scheduled Area, or applies with special modifications and exceptions.Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements regarding ordinance making powers of the President under article 123 of the Constitution :

  1. An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws.
  2. The President can promulgate only when both the houses of Parliament are in session.
  3. The Constitution of India requires that whenever a bill seeking to replace an ordinance is introduced in the house, a statement explaining the circumstances that had necessitated immediately legislation by ordinance should also be placed before the house.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3) Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the Constitution of India, the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
  2. The Constitution provides that a member must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency for election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

4) Under which of the following circumstances can Members of Parliament be disqualified under the provisions of the 10th Schedule?

  1. If a member voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket they were elected to the house.
  2. If any independently elected member joins any political party.

If a member is found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the election. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

5) Under which of the following circumstances, The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the state list?

  1. When the Rajyasabha passes a resolution with special majority.

  2. When a national emergency is declared.
  3. When the state legislature of two or more states pass resolution requesting the Parliament to enact laws on matter in the state list.
  4. To implement international agreement ,treaties or convention.
  5. When the President’s rule is imposed in a state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below below :

Your score is

The average score is 51%

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22 April 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative subjects :

  1. In case of overlapping between the Union list and state list, the former would prevail.
  2. In case of overlapping between the Union list and concurrent list, the latter would prevail.
  3. In case of overlapping between the Concurrent list and state list, the former would prevail. Select the incorrect statement using the code given below:

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements regarding statutory grants under article 275 of the Constitution :

  1. The statutory grants under article 275 are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance commission.
  2. Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state.
  3. These grants are charged on the Public account of India every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3) Consider the following statements :

Statement I : A bill affects the principles on which money are or may be distributed to states can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.

Statement II: To protect the interest of states In the financial matters, the constitution lays down that such type of bills can only be introduced in the Parliament with the prior recommendation of the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

4 / 5

4) Which of the following bills require the President’s recommendation before introduction in the Parliament ?

  1. Money bills under article 110
  2. Financial bills under article 117
  3. Bill altering the state boundaries under article 3.
  4. Bill that imposes restrictions upon freedom of trade under article 304.
  5. A bill which varies the meaning of the expression “agricultural income” as defined for the purpose of the enactment relating to Indian income tax.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements regarding Inter state water disputes :

  1. The President may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
  2. Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
  3. A river board is established by the President on the request of the state government concerned to advise them.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Your score is

The average score is 41%

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23 April 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

1) With reference to contempt of court, consider the following statements:

  1. Contempt of court is defined under the Constitution of India.
  2. The Supreme Court has ruled that it has the power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts, and tribunals.
  3. All cases related to contempt of court require the prior permission of the Attorney General of India.

Which of the above statements is/are Incorrect?

2 / 5

2)  Consider the following statements regarding executive powers of the Governor :

  1. All the executive actions of the government of a state are formally taken in his name.
  2. He appoints and removes the State Election Commissioner of the state.
  3. He can recommend an Constitutional emergency in a state to the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3) Consider the following statements regarding different types of pardoning powers:

  1. Remission refers to the substitution of a lighter form of punishment in place of a more severe one
  2. Respite denotes reducing the period of sentence without changing it’s character.
  3. Pardon denotes removal of both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishment and disqualification.

How many of the above statements is/ are correct?

4 / 5

4)  Which of the following Constitution amendment Act made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill?

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements regarding Zonal councils :

  1. Zonal councils are the Constitution bodies under article 263 of the Constitution.
  2. The Prime minister is the common chairman of the five zonal councils.
  3. The Eastern zonal council includes the North East region also.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

Your score is

The average score is 42%

0%

0%

24 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1) Which of the following adaptations occur in plants found in waterlogged or swampy environments (hydrophytes)?

  1. Aerenchyma tissue
  2. Floating leaves
  3. Reduced root systems

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2 / 5

2) Consider the following statements regarding Jet streams:

  1. The polar jet stream is formed due to the temperature contrast between the polar and mid-latitude regions.
  2. The El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) can cause shifts in the position and strength of jet streams, affecting global weather patterns.
  3. Jet streams are narrow bands of strong winds in the upper troposphere, flowing from east to west.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3 / 5

3) The vegetation of the tundra biome is characterized by low-growing plants such as mosses, lichens, and dwarf shrubs. The development of forests in the tundra is generally kept in check by one or more of the following conditions:

  1. Permafrost
  2. Short growing season
  3. Strong winds
  4. Low precipitation
  5. Nutrient-poor soils

Which of the following are the most likely and primarily conditions that prevent forest development in the tundra?

Select the correct answer using the code below:

4 / 5

4) This biome is dominated by coniferous trees such as spruce, fir, and pine, which are adapted to cold winters and short growing seasons. The soil is acidic and nutrient-poor, and the biome is home to animals such as moose, bears, and wolves.

This is the most likely description of:

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements :

  1. The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is characterized by low pressure and heavy rainfall, and it shifts north and south of the equator with the apparent movement of the sun.
  2. The temperate zone has a lower biodiversity compared to the tropics, but it supports unique ecosystems like deciduous forests and grasslands.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Your score is

The average score is 58%

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25 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):
 Tsunamis are often referred to as “shallow-water waves” despite their enormous energy.

Reason (R):
 Tsunamis have wavelengths much longer than the ocean depth, causing them to behave as shallow-water waves.

Which of the following is correct?

2 / 5

2) What is the primary component of the Earth’s core, located beneath the mantle?

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Rivers:

  1. Atmospheric rivers are most common in the mid-latitudes and are rare in tropical regions.
  2. Atmospheric rivers are responsible for transporting up to about 30% of the Earth’s moisture from the tropics to the poles.
  3. The frequency and intensity of atmospheric rivers are expected to increase in a warming climate, leading to more extreme precipitation events.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4)

Which of the following is a consequence of advection inversion?

Answer: A

Explanation:
 The California Current is a cold current flowing southward along the western coast of North America. It is part of the North Pacific Gyre and is influenced by the Coriolis effect, which governs its direction of flow. The cold nature of the current cools the air above it, reducing evaporation and precipitation, thereby contributing to the arid climate of coastal California. Hence, both Statements II and III are correct and explain Statement I.

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
 The California Current is a cold ocean current that flows southward along the western coast of North America.

Statement II:
 The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre and is influenced by the Coriolis effect.

Statement III:
 The California Current contributes to the arid climate of coastal California by cooling the air and reducing precipitation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

0%

27 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1) Which one of the following stars is the nearest to the Earth?

2 / 5

2)  Consider the following statements with reference to the Laterite Soil:

  1. They thrive in regions with high temperatures and low rainfall.
  2. They are rich in lime and silica.
  3. They have a deficiency of nitrogen and calcium.
  4. They are suitable for cashew nut cultivation.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

3) This soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall. It occurs in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan Plateau. It is generally poor in nitrogen and humus. Which of the following soils are described in the passage?

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

Mars is considered a potential planet to support life because it shows evidence of the presence of water in some form.

Statement II:

The atmospheric pressure and temperature conditions on Mars are similar to those on Earth, enabling stable liquid water to exist on its surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

5 / 5

5) Which of the following disasters are included as notified disasters in India?

  1. Cyclones
  2. Cold waves
  3. Heat waves
  4. Fire

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 42%

0%

0%

28 April 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

1) Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The thermocline is a layer in the ocean where temperature decreases rapidly with depth.
 Reason (R): The thermocline acts as a barrier to the mixing of surface and deep ocean waters.

Codes:

2 / 5

2) Which of the following statements about “ocean salinity” is/are correct?

  1. Salinity is highest in subtropical regions due to high evaporation and low precipitation.
  2. The Arctic Ocean has the lowest salinity due to freshwater input from melting ice and rivers.
  3. Salinity decreases with depth in the open ocean.
  4. The Mediterranean Sea has higher salinity than the Red Sea.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3 / 5

3)  Which of the following statements about “tides” is/are correct?

  1. Tides are primarily caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun.
  2. Spring tides occur during the full moon and new moon phases.
  3. Neap tides occur when the Sun and Moon are at right angles to each other.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

4 / 5

4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the “trade winds”?

5 / 5

5) Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The summer monsoon in India is characterized by onshore winds.
 Reason (R): The land heats up faster than the ocean during summer, creating a low-pressure zone over the land.

Codes:

Your score is

The average score is 51%

0%

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