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UPSC Static Quizzes December 2025 | UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Topic-wise UPSC Prelims Static MCQs &
Practice Quizzes for December 2025

UPSC Static Quizzes December 2025 provides topic-wise practice questions and important MCQs for UPSC Prelims preparation. These quizzes help aspirants revise static subjects, improve conceptual clarity, and strengthen exam-oriented preparation. Practice UPSC static GK quizzes regularly to boost accuracy, revision, and performance for the UPSC Civil Services Examination.

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1st December (Modern History)

1 / 5

1) Which of the following was NOT a consequence of the British suppression of the Revolt of 1857?

2 / 5

2) Which of the following statements best explains the underlying cause of the Revolt of 1857?

3 / 5

3) Consider the following statements about British economic policies in India:

  1. The British imposed restrictions on the entry of British goods into India until 1858.
  2. After the mid-19th century, significant amounts of British capital were invested in the Indian economy.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

4) Consider the following statements :

  1. Shuja-ud-daula maintained Awadh’s autonomy by openly defying the symbolic authority of the Mughal emperor.
  2. Shuja-ud-daula allied with the Marathas against Ahmad Shah Abdali during the Third Battle of Panipat (1761).

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

5) The Battle of Swally was fought in 1612 between:

Your score is

The average score is 44%

0%

2nd December(Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding "Atmospheric pressure":

  1. Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, with the change occurring in the troposphere.

  2. High-pressure systems are associated with clear skies and stable weather conditions.

  3. Low pressure systems are associated with rising air and cloud formation.

  4. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is approximately 1200 mm of mercury.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Consider the following statement:

Assertion (A): The stratosphere contains the ozone layer which contains ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
 Reason (R): The absorption of UV radiation in the stratosphere causes a temperature inversion where temperature increases with altitude.

Options:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements about latitude and longitude is/are correct?

  1. Latitude lines are parallel to each other and measure distances north or south of the Equator.

  2. Longitude lines converge at the poles and measure distances east or west of the Prime Meridian.

  3. The International Date Line is located at 180° longitude and is exactly opposite the Prime Meridian.

  4. The Tropic of Cancer is located at 23.5° south latitude.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
 Statement II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which of the following options is correct?

5 / 5

Collision–Coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to

Your score is

The average score is 50%

0%

3rd December (Geography)

1 / 5

 Which of the following statements about fault types is/are correct?

  1. Thrust faults are a type of reverse fault with a low angle of dip. 
  2. Strike-slip faults are responsible for the formation of rift valleys. 
  3. The East African Rift Valley is an example of a divergent fault system. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

Consider the following statements :

  1. P-waves cause particles in the ground to move in a circular motion, similar to ocean waves, which makes them highly destructive.

  2. Surface waves travel faster than body waves (P-waves and S-waves) and are responsible for the initial tremors felt during an earthquake.

  3. Both P-waves and S-waves are reflected at the Mohorovičić discontinuity (Moho), where their speeds decrease due to a change in rock density.

  4. S-waves are refracted when they pass through the Earth's mantle, creating a shadow zone between 105° and 140° from the epicenter.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

3 / 5

How many of the following landform/s is/are formed by erosion?

  1. Moraines

  2. Deltas

  3. Arêtes

  4. Alluvial fans

4 / 5

Which of the following statements about the “the Mid-Atlantic Ridge” is/are correct?

  1. The ridge is a convergent boundary where oceanic plates are subducting beneath continental plates.

  2. The rate of seafloor spreading at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is approximately 2.5 cm per year.

  3. It is older than the Pacific Ring of Fire in terms of geological activity.

5 / 5

The formation of various landforms on the Earth's surface is influenced by:

  1. The type of rock and its resistance to weathering and erosion.

  2. The intensity and duration of tectonic activity in a region.

  3. The climate and its impact on erosional and depositional processes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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4th December(Geography)

1 / 5

The Deccan Traps, one of the largest volcanic features on Earth, were formed due to:

2 / 5

The formation of various landforms on the Earth's surface is influenced by:

  1. The type of rock and its resistance to weathering and erosion.

  2. The intensity and duration of tectonic activity in a region.

  3. The climate and its impact on erosional and depositional processes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements about Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) is/are correct?

  1. Higher OMT in tropical regions is associated with decreased intensity of tropical cyclones.

  2. Higher OMT contributes to sea level rise through thermal expansion of seawater.

Select the correct answer using code given below :

4 / 5

Consider the following statements

Statement I: Oxbow lakes are formed when a meandering river cuts off a meander loop, creating a crescent-shaped lake.
 Statement II: Oxbow lakes are typically found in the youthful stage of a river's development.

5 / 5

Consider the following:

  1. Earth's axial tilt

  2. Greenhouse gases

  3. Oceanic convection currents

  4. Earth's revolution around the Sun

  5. Magnetic reversals

Which of the above are responsible for seasonal changes on Earth?

Your score is

The average score is 75%

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5th December(Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements about Earth’s magnetic field:

  1. The magnetosphere protects Earth from solar wind by deflecting charged particles.

  2. Earth’s magnetic field is generated by the movement of molten iron in the inner core.

  3. The magnetic equator is the line where Earth’s magnetic field is strongest.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements about the Earth's hemispheres:

  1. During the equinoxes, the Sun is directly overhead at the Equator, but the length of daylight is longer in the hemisphere experiencing spring.

  2. The tilt of the Earth’s axis is responsible for the variation in the length of daylight between the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The albedo effect of clouds is stronger for low-altitude clouds because they are thicker and denser, reflecting more incoming solar radiation compared to high-altitude clouds. 
  2. Clouds have a greater warming effect during the day because they trap more incoming solar radiation than they reflect outgoing infrared radiation. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The asteroid belt is located between Mars and Jupiter. 
  2. The asteroid belt is primarily composed of icy bodies similar to those found in the Kuiper Belt. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Consider the following statements :
 Assertion (A): Stratovolcanoes are more explosive than shield volcanoes.
 Reason (R): Stratovolcanoes are composed of alternating layers of lava and ash.

Your score is

The average score is 52%

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6th December(Geography)

1 / 5

The boundary between the Earth's mantle and core, known as the Gutenberg discontinuity, is characterized by a significant change in:

2 / 5

Which of the following is/are evidence supporting the theory of continental drift?

  1. The presence of identical rock formations and mountain ranges on different continents.

  2. The discovery of mid-ocean ridges and seafloor spreading.

  3. The distribution of glacial deposits and striations in regions that are now near the equator.

  4. The alignment of volcanic activity along plate boundaries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements about the distribution of water on Earth is/are correct?

  1. The Arctic and Antarctic ice sheets contain about ~68% of Earth's total freshwater.

  2. Atmospheric water vapor accounts for around 1% of Earth's total water, but it plays a crucial role in the water cycle.

  3. Soil moisture accounts for a larger volume of freshwater than all the world's rivers combined.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following statements about ocean waves is/are correct?

  1. Tsunamis are caused by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides, and they have long wavelengths and high speeds in deep water.

  2. Rogue waves are unusually large and unpredictable waves that can occur in the open ocean due to constructive interference of smaller waves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Which of the following statements about earthquakes is/are correct?

  1. The focus of an earthquake is the point on the Earth's surface directly above the origin of the seismic waves.

  2. The Richter scale measures the total energy released by an earthquake, while the Mercalli scale measures the intensity of shaking at a specific location.

  3. Deep-focus earthquakes occur at divergent plate boundaries and are associated with subduction zones.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 48%

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8th December(Geography)

1 / 5

Which of the following statements about the glacial cycle is/are correct?

  1. The glacial cycle consists of alternating periods of glaciation (ice ages) and interglacial periods (warmer phases).

  2. During glaciation, sea levels rise due to the accumulation of ice on land.

  3. Interglacial periods are characterized by the retreat of glaciers and the formation of glacial landforms such as moraines and drumlins.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

Which of the following is/are the geologic features that can be seen in a Deltaic Region?

  1. Estuaries

  2. Levees

  3. Oxbow Lakes

  4. Distributaries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following countries is NOT part of the Nile River Basin?

4 / 5

With reference to Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

5 / 5

The corona, a series of colored rings around the Sun or Moon, is caused by:

Your score is

The average score is 48%

0%

9th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Which of the following is most likely to lead to inflation?

2 / 5

Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in a depreciation of the Indian rupee?

  1. An increase in interest rates by the United States Federal Reserve.
  2. Accelerating GDP growth and increased forex reserves.
  3. Widening trade deficit and reduced foreign investment.
  4. Persistently high inflation in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

With reference to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), consider the following statements:

  1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is released by Department of Economic Affairs.
  2. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) does not represent the inflation in services.
  3. The WPI helps in economic forecasting and maintaining price stability.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Indian economy:

  1. Capital expenditure has decreased steadily over the last 5 years.
  2. GST collection have consistently increased over the last 5 years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Which of the following is/are the most likely implications if India’s international trade is settled in Rupees?

  1. It may reduce India’s dependence on the US dollar for international trade.
  2. It shall lead to a manifold decrease in India’s forex reserves.
  3. It may lead to an increase in Indian exports to countries with forex deficits.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 32%

0%

10th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian economy:

  1. Foreign portfolio investment in India has increased over the last 5 years.
  2. The external debt to GDP ratio has decreased over the last 5 years.
  3. The current account surplus has decreased consistently over the last 5 years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

 Which of the following are likely implications of a higher fiscal deficit?

  1. Higher inflation in the economy
  2. Higher interest rate in the economy
  3. Lower saving rate in the economy
  4. Persistent higher economic growth rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following is the primary purpose of open market operation conducted by the central bank?

4 / 5

Which of the following best describe the term “Bitcoin halving”, sometimes seen in the news?

5 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. An increase in the monetary base will always lead to a proportionate increase in the money supply.
  2. The money multiplier is constant and does not change in response to changes in the economy.
  3. An increase in the money multiplier will lead to an increase in the money supply, assuming the monetary base remains constant.
  4. A decrease in the monetary base will always lead to a decrease in the money supply.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 47%

0%

11th December(Economy)

1 / 5

In the context of budgetary process, which of the following statements is/are correct about a vote-on-account and an interim budget?

  1. A vote-on-account contains only the expenditure of the government’s budget, while an interim budget is a complete set of accounts.
  2. A vote-on-account cannot change the tax regime under any circumstances.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

In the context of the Central Bank Digital Currency or e-Rupee initiative of the RBI, consider the following statements about the e-Rupee:

  1. The e-Rupee is expected to increase the effectiveness of monetary policy transmission by allowing for more precise control over the money supply.
  2. The introduction of the e-Rupee may affect the lending capacity of commercial banks.
  3. The e-Rupee is likely to promote financial inclusion by expanding access to financial services for underserved populations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Price Index (CPI):

  1. CPI doesn’t represent the inflation in capital and intermediate goods.
  2. The base year for CPI is 2021-22.
  3. A rising Consumer Price Index (CPI) erodes the purchasing power of citizens by reducing the value of money.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

In the context of finance, the term “front running” refers to,

5 / 5

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true if a country experiences a decrease in its Capital-Output Ratio (COR) over time?

Your score is

The average score is 50%

0%

12th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Which one of the following situations best reflects “Reverse flipping”, often talked about in media recently with reference to India in context of finance?

2 / 5

“Extended credit facility”, “The flexible credit line” and “The stand-by agreement” are related to the provision of lending by which of the following?

3 / 5

How many of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near Money’?

  1. Treasury Bill.
  2. Painting.
  3. Certificate of deposit.
  4. Bonds near their redemption date.
  5. Government securities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

4 / 5

The situation where the equilibrium level of real GDP falls short of potential GDP is known as:

5 / 5

Which of the following actions can be taken to curb deflation in the economy?

  1. Increase the money supply in the economy.
  2. RBI sells G-Secs in the market.
  3. Raise interest rates.
  4. Decrease the reverse repo rate.
  5. Increase transfer payments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 77%

0%

13th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Nominal and Real GDP:

  1. Nominal GDP is calculated using current prices and it is not adjusted for inflation.
  2. Real GDP is the inflation-adjusted GDP of a country which reflects the value of final goods and services produced by an economy in a given year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Which of the following correctly describes "Anchor Investors"?

3 / 5

Which term is used in economics to describe a strategy that reduces risk by taking a position in a security or asset to offset potential losses?

4 / 5

Which of the following constitute broad money in the economy?

  1. Current deposit with the banking system.
  2. Certificates of deposit issued by the bank.
  3. Currency with the public.
  4. Demand deposit with the post office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Which of the following is a bond through which Indian entities can raise money from foreign markets in dollar and dominated in rupees?

Your score is

The average score is 55%

0%

15th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Urea Gold:

  1. Urea Gold is a sulphur-fortified urea fertiliser developed by Ministry of Agriculture.
  2. Indian soils are deficient in sulphur, a nutrient essential for oilseeds and pulses, making Urea Gold a beneficial fertiliser.
  3. Urea Gold improves nitrogen use efficiency by releasing it gradually.
  4. Urea Gold helps farmers reduce urea consumption, potentially saving costs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. An increase in a bond’s demand leads to a decrease in its selling price, which in turn causes an increase in its yield.
  2. Rising bond yields increase the government’s borrowing costs, as it must pay higher returns to investors.
  3. Rising US bond yields attract foreign investors, who shift from emerging market equities to US bonds, seeking lower risk and higher returns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following policies help to raise interest rates unambiguously and thereby lead to appreciation of currency?

5 / 5

Which one of the following functions as an automatic stabilizer in the context of fiscal and monetary policies of an economy?

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

16th December(Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Stagflation:

  1. It is caused by demand pull inflation.
  2. It is characterized by high growth with low inflation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Which of the following transactions are classified as capital account transactions in a country’s balance of payments?

  1. Foreign direct investment
  2. External commercial borrowings
  3. Dividend payments to foreign investors
  4. Interest payments on foreign loans
  5. Foreign portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Livestock census:

  1. It is conducted by department of Economic Affairs.
  2. The census is conducted every 5 years.
  3. India has world’s largest livestock population.

How many of the above statements are correct?

4 / 5

Which of the following is/are the examples of Transfer Payment(s)?

  1. Unemployment allowance
  2. Payment of salary
  3. Social security payments
  4. Old age pension
  5. Payment of taxes
  6. Housing subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

What is a “Crypto Winter” in the context of the cryptocurrency market?

Your score is

The average score is 56%

0%

17th December(Economy)

1 / 5

What is the primary purpose of the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) introduced by the RBI?

2 / 5

Which of the following statements correctly describes the “Currency Deposit Ratio”?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Standing Deposit Facility (SDF):

  1. The Standing Deposit Facility is a non-collateral open-ended instrument tool for liquidity management and financial stability.
  2. The Standing Deposit Facility is available at the RBI’s discretion.
  3. Deposits under the SDF won’t be eligible for CRR maintenance, but they will be an eligible asset for maintenance of the SLR.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following steps can be taken to reduce fiscal deficit?

  1. Increasing taxes
  2. Increasing external commercial borrowings
  3. Disinvestment of public sector enterprise
  4. Increasing revenue expenditure

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Treasury Bills (T-Bills):

  1. T-Bills are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India.
  2. T-Bills are short-term securities with maturities ranging from 14 days to 364 days.
  3. T-Bills are sold through auctions conducted by the RBI.
  4. T-Bills carry a fixed interest rate, which is paid periodically.

Which of the following options is correct?

Your score is

The average score is 36%

0%

0%

18th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the Constitution of India, the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
  2. The Constitution provides that a member must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency for election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

2 / 5

2)

Under which the following circumstances, The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the state list?

  1. When the Rajyasabha passes a resolution with special majority.
  2. When a national emergency is declared.
  3. When the state legislature of two or more states pass resolution requesting the Parliament to enact laws on matter in the state list.
  4. To implement international agreement , treaties or convention.
  5. When the President’s rule is imposed in a state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3)

Under which of the following circumstances can Members of Parliament be disqualified under the provisions of the 10th Schedule?

  1. If a member voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket they were elected to the house.
  2. If any independently elected member joins any political party.
  3. If a member is found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices in the election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements regarding ordinance making powers of the President under article 123 of the Constitution :

  1. An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws.
  2. The President can promulgate only when both the houses of Parliament are in session.
  3. The Constitution of India requires that whenever a bill seeking to replace an ordinance is introduced in the house, a statement explaining the circumstances that had necessitated immediately legislation by ordinance should also be placed before the house.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following regarding the Scheduled and Tribal Areas:

  1. The President is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area.
  2. Each state having Scheduled Areas has to establish a Tribal Advisory Council to advise on the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Areas.
  3. The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular Act of Parliament or the State Legislature does not apply to a Scheduled Area, or applies with special modifications and exceptions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Your score is

The average score is 76%

0%

0%

19th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements regarding Inter state water disputes :

  1. President may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
  2. Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
  3. A river board is established by the President on the request of the state government concerned to advise them.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

2)

Which of the following bills require the President’s recommendation before introduction in the Parliament ?

  1. Money bills under article 110
  2. Financial bills under article 117
  3. Bill altering the state boundaries under article 3.
  4. Bill that impose restrictions upon freedom of trade under article 304.
  5. A bill which varies the meaning of the expression “agricultural income” as defined for the purpose of the enactment relating to Indian income tax.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements :

Statement I : A bill affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributed to states can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.

Statement II : To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the constitution lays down that such type of bills can be introduced in the Parliament with the prior recommendation of the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements regarding statutory grants under article 275 of the Constitution :

  1. The statutory grants under article 275 are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
  2. Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state.
  3. These grants are charged on the Public account of India every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative subjects :

  1. In case of overlapping between the Union list and state list, the former would prevail.
  2. In case of overlapping between the Union list and concurrent list, the latter would prevail.
  3. In case of overlapping between the Concurrent list and state list, the former would prevail.

Select the incorrect statement using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

0%

20th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

With reference to contempt of court, consider the following statements:

  1. Contempt of court is defined under the Constitution of India.
  2. The Supreme Court has ruled that it has the power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts, and tribunals.
  3. All cases related to contempt of court require the prior permission of the Attorney General of India.

Which of the above statements is/are Incorrect?

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements regarding executive powers of the Governor :

  1. All the executive actions of the government of a state are formally taken in his name.
  2. He appoints and removes the State Election Commissioner of the state.
  3. He can recommend an Constitutional emergency in a state to the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements regarding different types of pardoning powers:

  1. Remission refers to the substitution of a lighter form of punishment in place of a more severe one
  2. Respite denotes reducing the period of sentence without changing it’s character.
  3. Pardon denotes removal of both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishment and disqualification.

How many of the above statements is/ are correct?

4 / 5

4)

Which of the following Constitution amendment Act made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill?

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements regarding Zonal councils :

  1. Zonal council are the Constitution bodies under article 263 of the Constitution.
  2. The Prime minister is the common chairman of the five zonal councils.
  3. Eastern zonal council includes North East region also.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

0%

22nd December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements regarding Leader of the opposition :

  1. The position of Leader of the Opposition is a constitutional post.
  2. The Leader of the Opposition is decided by the President of India when no party secures the required seats.

Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

  1. The date of election of the speaker is fixed by the President.
  2. Whenever the loksabha is dissolved, the speaker vacates his office immediately.
  3. He summons and preside over the joint sitting of the two houses of Parliament.
  4. When resolution for the removal of the speaker is under consideration of the house he can’t preside at the sitting on the House and also he can’t speak and take part in the proceedings of the house at a time.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements regarding the Public account committee :

  1. The committee has 30 members from loksabha only.
  2. The chairman of the committee is appointed from amongst its members by the speaker.
  3. As per Constitution of India, Chairman of the committee must be from opposition party.
  4. The primary function of the committee is to examine the appropriation accounts and the finances account of union government and any other account laid before the Lok Sabha.

How many of the above statements are correct?

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements about a Whip in the context of Indian parliamentary procedures:

  1. A whip is a directive issued by a political party to its members.
  2. Whips are mandatory for all members of the party, as specified in the Constitution of India.
  3. Whips are issued only for money bills.
  4. Defiance of a whip can lead to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.

Which of the above statements are correct?

5 / 5

5)

With reference to the powers of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, in which of the following areas do they have equal status?

  1. Introduction and passage of money bills or finance bills dealing with taxation.
  2. Voting on demands for grants.
  3. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.
  4. Approval of ordinances issued by the President.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 50%

0%

0%

23rd December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements regarding Financial bills (II) under Article 117(3):

  1. A financial bill contains provision involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of India but doesn’t include any of the matters mentioned in the article 110.
  2. It is introduced only in Lok Sabha and not in Rajyasabha and require recommendation of the president.
  3. In case of disagreement, the president can summon a joint sitting of the two houses to resolve the deadlock.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements regarding Private bills :

  1. It is introduced by any members other than a minister.
  2. Its introduction in the Parliament requires one month’s notice.
  3. It is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department.
  4. Private bill require support of at least 55 members to be introduced.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements the No confidence motion:

  1. No confidence motion is mentioned in the Constitution of India under article 75.
  2. It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of minister.
  3. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements regarding the Adjournment motion :

  1. It is introduced in the parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of some members to be admitted.
  2. It involves an element of censure against the government, and if an adjournment motion is passed, the Council of Ministers must resign from office.
  3. Both loksabha and Rajyasabha is permitted to make use of this device.
  4. Adjournment motion should not raise a question of privilege revive discussion on matter that has been discussed in the same session.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements regarding Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament:

  1. Zero Hour is mentioned in the Constitution of India.
  2. Members can raise issues of urgent public importance without prior notice during Zero Hour.
  3. Zero Hour typically starts immediately after Question Time.
  4. The Speaker/Chairman has the discretion to allow or reject issues raised during Zero Hour.

Which of the statements are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 100%

0%

0%

24th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

With reference to parliamentary privileges, consider the following statements:

  1. Parliamentary privileges are extended to the President and the Attorney General of India as well.
  2. In both civil and criminal cases, members of Parliament cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

2 / 5

2)

What is the significance of notice under Rule 377 in Lok Sabha?

3 / 5

3)

With reference to budgetary procedure of the Parliament, What is the primary effect of the Rule of Lapse?

4 / 5

4)

Consider the following statements regarding the Departmental standing Committees:

  1. It was set up on the recommendation of rules Committee of loksabha.
  2. Main function of the committee is to consider the demand for grants for the concerned ministries and departments before they are discussed and voted in the loksabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

5)

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Only the Prime Minister has to take the Oath of Secrecy and not the other ministers.
  2. The Prime Minister holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 36%

0%

0%

25th December (Polity)

1 / 5

1)

With reference to the Deputy speaker in the loksabha, Consider the following statements:

  1. The date of election of the deputy speaker is fixed by the President.
  2. Deputy speaker is directly responsible to the speaker of loksabha.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

2 / 5

2)

Who appoints speaker pro tem in the loksabha?

3 / 5

3)

With reference to the Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction, consider the following statements:

  1. The Supreme Court must tender its opinion to the President on any dispute arising out of any pre-constitutional treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, etc
  2. The opinion expressed by the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact of public importance is binding on the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

4 / 5

4)

Which of the following essentially captures the motive of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?

5 / 5

5)

With reference to the Estimate committee, consider the following statements:

  1. It examines the budget only after they have been voted by the parliament, and not before that.
  2. It’s recommendations are advisory in nature and not binding on the ministries. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 52%

0%

0%

26th December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following trees:

  1. Sal (Shorea robusta)
  2. Neem (Azadirachta indica)
  3. Banyan (Ficus benghalensis)

How many of the above are evergreen trees?

2 / 5

2)

If the Kuroshio Current were to weaken, what would be the most likely impact on Japan's climate?

3 / 5

3)

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Indian Ocean experiences a reversal of currents due to the seasonal monsoon winds.
  2. The Atlantic Ocean has a higher average salinity compared to the Pacific Ocean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

4)

Coral reefs are predominantly found in which of the following conditions?

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements about the Coriolis force and its effects:

  1. The Coriolis force causes ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere to deflect to the right.
  2. The Coriolis force influences atmospheric pressure systems by causing winds to spiral clockwise around low-pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere.
  3. The Coriolis force is responsible for the eastward movement of the polar jet stream, which separates cold polar air from warm tropical air.
  4. The Coriolis force is strongest at the equator and decreases toward the poles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

0%

27th December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Which of the following adaptations occur in plants found in waterlogged or swampy environments (hydrophytes)?

  1. Aerenchyma tissue
  2. Floating leaves
  3. Reduced root systems

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements regarding Jet streams:

  1. The polar jet stream is formed due to the temperature contrast between the polar and mid-latitude regions.
  2. The El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) can cause shifts in the position and strength of jet streams, affecting global weather patterns.
  3. Jet streams are narrow bands of strong winds in the upper troposphere, flowing from east to west.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3 / 5

3)

The vegetation of the tundra biome is characterized by low-growing plants such as mosses, lichens, and dwarf shrubs. The development of forests in the tundra is generally kept in check by one or more of the following conditions:

  1. Permafrost
  2. Short growing season
  3. Strong winds
  4. Low precipitation
  5. Nutrient-poor soils

Which of the following are the most likely and primarily conditions that prevent forest development in the tundra?

Select the correct answer using the code below:

4 / 5

4)

This biome is dominated by coniferous trees such as spruce, fir, and pine, which are adapted to cold winters and short growing seasons. The soil is acidic and nutrient-poor, and the biome is home to animals such as moose, bears, and wolves.

This is the most likely description of:

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is characterized by low pressure and heavy rainfall, and it shifts north and south of the equator with the apparent movement of the sun.
  2. The temperate zone has a lower biodiversity compared to the tropics, but it supports unique ecosystems like deciduous forests and grasslands.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

0%

29th December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements about the Westerlies:

  1. The Westerlies are prevailing winds that blow from west to east in the mid-latitudes (between 30° and 60° latitude) in both hemispheres.
  2. The Westerlies are responsible for the movement of weather systems, such as cyclones and anticyclones, across continents like North America and Europe.
  3. The Westerlies are strongest in the Southern Hemisphere due to the lack of landmasses to disrupt their flow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

2)

Which of the following are impacts of El Niño on global climate?

  1. Weakening of trade winds in the Pacific Ocean, leading to reduced upwelling of cold, nutrient-rich water off the coast of South America.
  2. Increased frequency of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean due to changes in wind shear.
  3. Drought conditions in Australia and Southeast Asia due to shifts in atmospheric circulation.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

3 / 5

3)

The formation of the Gobi Desert in Central Asia is primarily due to:

  1. Its location is in the rain shadow of the Himalayas and other mountain ranges.
  2. Its position in the continental interior, far from moisture sources like oceans.
  3. The influence of warm ocean currents, which reduce precipitation in the region.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

4 / 5

4)

Why do temperatures increase with altitude in the stratosphere?

  1. The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet (UV) radiation, heating the stratosphere.
  2. The stratosphere is closer to the Sun, receiving more direct solar radiation.
  3. The stratosphere has minimal vertical mixing of air movement.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

5 / 5

5)

The temperature range in polar regions is extremely high during summer and winter. What is/are the reason/reasons?

  1. Prolonged daylight in summer leads to significant heating.
  2. Prolonged darkness in winter leads to extreme cooling.
  3. Low humidity in polar regions allows for rapid temperature changes.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Your score is

The average score is 50%

0%

0%

30th December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Consider the following statements about soil classification:

  1. Alluvial soils are formed by the deposition of sediments by rivers and are highly fertile.
  2. Black soils are rich in iron and aluminum oxides and are found in tropical and subtropical regions.
  3. Laterite soils are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall and are suitable for agriculture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

2)

Consider the following statements about solar eclipses:

  1. A total solar eclipse occurs when the Moon completely covers the Sun, as seen from Earth, and can only occur during a new moon.
  2. An annular solar eclipse occurs when the Moon is too close to Earth to completely cover the Sun, resulting in a “ring of fire” appearance.
  3. A partial solar eclipse occurs when only a part of the Sun is obscured by the Moon, and it can be observed from a larger geographic area compared to a total solar eclipse.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

3)

Which of the following is a key difference between tornadoes and hurricanes?

4 / 5

4)

The Hevea brasiliensis species is associated with which of the following?

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements about La Niña:

  1. La Niña often leads to wetter-than-average conditions in Southeast Asia and drier-than-average conditions in the southern United States.
  2. La Niña events are typically shorter in duration and less frequent than El Niño events each time.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Your score is

The average score is 22%

0%

0%

31st December (Geography)

1 / 5

1)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the subtropical high-pressure belts?

2 / 5

2)

The formation of various landforms on the Earth’s surface is influenced by:

  1. The type of rock and its resistance to weathering and erosion
  2. The intensity and duration of tectonic activity in a region
  3. The gravitational pull of the Moon, which directly shapes landforms

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

3)

In the Earth’s inner core, the primary reason for its solid state, despite extremely high temperatures, is attributed to:

4 / 5

4)

Match the following landforms with the processes responsible for their formation:

LandformsProcess
1. HoodoosA. Wind erosion
2. CirquesB. Glacial erosion
3. Oxbow lakesC. Chemical weathering
4. YardangsD. River erosion

Codes:

5 / 5

5)

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):
 The Amazon Rainforest is the largest tropical rainforest in the world and is often referred to as the “lungs of the Earth”.

Reason (R):
 The Amazon Rainforest produces a significant amount of the world’s oxygen and absorbs large quantities of carbon dioxide.

Which of the following is correct?

Your score is

The average score is 68%

0%

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