What is the UPSC Civil Services Examination (CSE)?

The UPSC CSE is India’s most prestigious exam conducted to recruit IAS, IPS, IFS, and other Group A & B officers. It has three stages: Prelims, Mains, and Interview.

Who is eligible to apply for UPSC CSE?

Any graduate between 21–32 years of age (with relaxation for reserved categories) can apply. Both final-year students and professionals are eligible.

How many attempts are allowed in UPSC?

General: 6 attempts (till 32 years); OBC(NCL): 9 attempts (till 35 years); SC/ST: Unlimited attempts (till 37 years).

What is the exam pattern of UPSC?

Prelims: Objective (GS & CSAT); Mains: 9 Descriptive Papers (Essay, 4 GS, 2 Optional, 2 Qualifying Language Papers); Interview/Personality Test: Final stage.

How should a beginner start UPSC preparation?

For self-learners: Start with NCERTs (Class 6–12), followed by standard reference books, daily newspaper reading, and consistent answer writing practice. Students associated with 'UnderStand UPSC': Follow the guidance provided by the team of mentors led by Satyam Jain Sir.

Which books are best for UPSC preparation?

Polity: Laxmikanth; History: Spectrum + NCERTs; Geography: NCERT + GC Leong; Economy: Ramesh Singh + Current Affairs; Environment: Majid Husain.

Is coaching necessary for UPSC?

Not compulsory. With the right strategy, self-discipline, and resources, many toppers have cleared UPSC without coaching. Coaching, however, can provide structured guidance.

How important is Current Affairs in UPSC?

Extremely important. Questions in Prelims, Mains, and Interviews are linked to current issues. Reading newspapers like The Hindu/Indian Express or using monthly compilations is essential.

How much time is required to prepare for UPSC?

On average, 1.5 to 2 years of focused preparation with 8–10 hours daily study is ideal. Consistency matters more than duration.

What is the role of NCERTs in UPSC preparation?

NCERTs build strong conceptual clarity in subjects like History, Geography, Polity, and Economy. They are the foundation of UPSC preparation.

How can I manage UPSC preparation with a job?

Follow a time-blocking strategy, prioritize weekends for deep study, and focus on smart notes & revision. Many working professionals have successfully cleared UPSC.

Does UPSC preparation require English medium only?

No. UPSC allows candidates to write Mains in any of the 22 scheduled languages. Many toppers have cleared UPSC in Hindi and regional languages.

What is the cut-off for UPSC Prelims (General Category)?

The cut-off changes every year but usually ranges between 75–98 marks depending on difficulty, vacancies, and number of applicants.

How should I prepare for UPSC answer writing?

Practice daily or weekly answer writing, focus on structure (Intro–Body–Conclusion), and include facts, examples, and current affairs.

Where can I get free UPSC resources?

You can download NCERTs, UPSC Previous Year Papers, Daily Current Affairs PDFs, and Notes for free from the Understand UPSC Free Resources section.

Is CSAT qualifying in UPSC Prelims?

Yes. Candidates need to score at least 33% (66 marks) in CSAT to qualify.

What is the exam pattern of UPSC Prelims?

Two papers: General Studies (200 marks) and CSAT (200 marks, qualifying). Both are objective type.

What is UnderStand UPSC and how is it different from other coaching institutes?

UnderStand UPSC is a mentorship-driven EdTech platform for UPSC aspirants focusing on personalized guidance, affordability, and credibility — unlike traditional coaching setups.

What courses do you offer for UPSC preparation?

We offer Conquer Program (Mains Mentorship), UpSurge Mains Test Series, Transform (Foundation), CSAT by Saransh Gupta Sir, Prelims MAD Execute, Prelims Test Series, Answer Writing Programs, and Optional Subject Mentorship.

How does the mentorship program work?

Each group on Telegram is assigned a mentor who reviews test copies, provides feedback, tracks progress, and conducts sessions via Zoom or Google Meet.

Do you provide online or offline classes?

Yes, both modes are available. Offline has limited seats; online ensures access across India with live mentorship and test feedback.

How can I enroll in a course?

You can register via our website (www.understandupsc.com), mobile app, or contact team. Enrolled students receive LMS access with all resources.

Do you provide free resources?

Yes. Free resources include NCERT PDFs, UPSC Academic Calendar, Syllabus, PYQs, and Daily Current Affairs — available in the Free Resources Section.

How do your test series work?

Our test series mirror UPSC standards, are evaluated by mentors, and come with personalized feedback to ensure continuous improvement.

What is the fee structure for your programs?

Fees vary by program but are designed to remain affordable while maintaining quality. Check the latest pricing on the Courses Page.

Can working professionals also join your programs?

Yes. Our mentorship is flexible and personalized, helping working aspirants balance jobs with preparation.

Do you provide guidance for the UPSC Interview/Personality Test?

Yes. We conduct mock interviews, DAF-based guidance, and personality development under the ANTIM-PAG program.

Do you provide study material and notes?

Yes. Students receive curated notes, strategic value additions, and daily/weekly study targets complementing NCERTs and standard books.

How can I contact the team for queries?

You can contact us via email at support@understandupsc.com or call our helpline at +91 8377072252.

Does UnderStand UPSC provide online classes?

Yes, we offer live online sessions, recorded lectures, and continuous mentorship support.

Are test series available separately?

Yes. We provide separate Prelims and Mains test series with detailed evaluation and feedback, aligned with our classroom programs.

UPSC Prelims 2018 Quiz – GS1

UPSC Prelims 2018 Quiz – GS

1 / 100

1) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

2 / 100

2) Question

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

3 / 100

3) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

4 / 100

4) Question

A) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.

B) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.

C) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.

D) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

5 / 100

5) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

6 / 100

6) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

7 / 100

7) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

8 / 100

8) Question

A) 2 and 3 only

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

9 / 100

9) Question

A) 2 and 3 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

10 / 100

10) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

11 / 100

11) Question

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 2 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12 / 100

12) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1, 2 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

13 / 100

13) Question

A) Arunachal Pradesh

B) Manipur

C) Meghalaya

D) Nagaland

14 / 100

14) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

15 / 100

15) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3

C) 1 and 2

D) 3 only

16 / 100

16) Question

A) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

B) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

C) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

17 / 100

17) Question

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 3 and 4 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 4 only

18 / 100

18) Question

A) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

B) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

C) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

D) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

19 / 100

19) Question

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3

D) 3 only

20 / 100

20) Question

A) 4-1-2-3

B) 3-2-1-4

C) 4-2-1-3

D) 3-1-2-4

21 / 100

21) Question

A) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

B) The UNEP Secretariat

C) The UNFCCC Secretariat

D) The World Meteorological Organization

22 / 100

22) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

23 / 100

23) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 only

D) 1 and 3

24 / 100

24) Question

A) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

B) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

C) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

D) None of the above

25 / 100

25) Question

A) 1, 3 and 4 only

B) 2, 3 and 5 only

C) 1 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

26 / 100

26) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

27 / 100

27) Question

A) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

B) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

C) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris

D) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

28 / 100

28) Question

A) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.

B) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.

C) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.

D) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

29 / 100

29) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

30 / 100

30) Question

A) All India Home Rule League

B) Hindu Mahasabha

C) South Indian Liberal Federation

D) The Servants of India Society

31 / 100

31) Question

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and З

32 / 100

32) Question

A) To maintain a large standing army at other's expense

B) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger

C) To secure a fixed income for the Company

D) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

33 / 100

33) Question

A) Avalokiteshvara

B) Lokesvara

C) Maitreya

D) Padmapani

34 / 100

34) Question

A) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

B) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

C) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

D) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

35 / 100

35) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

36 / 100

36) Question

A) Francois Bernier

B) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

C) Jean de Thevenot

D) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

37 / 100

37) Question

A) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement

B) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement

C) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement

D) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

38 / 100

38) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

39 / 100

39) Question

A) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

B) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead

C) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

D) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

40 / 100

40) Question

A) Buddhism

B) Jainism

C) Vaishnavism

D) Shaivism

41 / 100

41) Question

A) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George

B) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy

C) CP Ramas6my Iver K Kamarsi and Veeresalingam Pantulu

D) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

42 / 100

42) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

43 / 100

43) Question

A) Border Gateway Protocol

B) Internet of Things

C) Internet Protocol

D) Virtual Private Network

44 / 100

44) Question

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

45 / 100

45) Question

A) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

B) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

C) Increased acidity of ocoanз result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

D) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

46 / 100

46) Question

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

47 / 100

47) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

48 / 100

48) Question

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) None

49 / 100

49) Question

A) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

B) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.

C) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

D) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

50 / 100

50) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

51 / 100

51) Question

A) 1, 3 and 4

B) 2, 3, 4 and 5

C) 2, 4 and 5

D) 1, 2, 3 and 5

52 / 100

52) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

53 / 100

53) Question

A) Exoplanets

B) Cryptocurrency

C) Cyber attacks

D) Mini satellites

54 / 100

54) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

55 / 100

55) Question

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2

C) 3 only

D) 2 and 3

56 / 100

56) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

57 / 100

57) Question

A) weak administrative machinery

B) illiteracy

C) high population density

D) high capital-output ratio

58 / 100

58) Question

A) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

B) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

C) Article 19 is suspended in that State.

D) the President can make laws relating to that State.

59 / 100

59) Question

A) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts

B) growth in the number of Indian owned factories

C) commercialization of Indian agriculture

D) rapid increase in the urban population

60 / 100

60) Question

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 only

C) 2 and 4

D) 1, 3 and 4

61 / 100

61) Question

A) industrial output fails to keep pace withagricultural output.

B) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

C) poverty and unemployment increase.

D) imports grow faster than exports.

62 / 100

62) Question

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 and 4 only

C) 1, 2 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

63 / 100

63) Question

A) the opportunity cost is zero.

B) the opportunity cost is ignored.

C) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

D) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

64 / 100

64) Question

A) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

B) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

C) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

D) The metallic money in circulation in a country

65 / 100

65) Question

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 and 4 only

C) 1, 2 and 3

D) 2, 3 and 4

66 / 100

66) Question

A) An Israeli radar system

B) India's indigenous anti-missile programme

C) An American anti-missile system

D) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

67 / 100

67) Question

A) Bundi school

B) Jaipur school

C) Kangra school

D) Kishangarh school

68 / 100

68) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

69 / 100

69) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

70 / 100

70) Question

A) Federal Legislature

B) Governor General

C) Provincial Legislature

D) Provincial Governors

71 / 100

71) Question

A) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

B) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

C) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.

D) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

72 / 100

72) Question

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 4

C) 2 and 3

D) 3 and 4

73 / 100

73) Question

A) 1, 2, 4 and 5

B) 3, 4, 5 and 6

C) 1, 3, 4 and 5

D) 2, 3, 4 and 6

74 / 100

74) Question

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

75 / 100

75) Question

A) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

B) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

C) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

D) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

76 / 100

76) Question

A) Child labour

B) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change

C) Regulation of food prices and food security

D) Gender parity at the workplace

77 / 100

77) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

78 / 100

78) Question

A) Bengaluru

B) Hyderabad

C) Nagpur

D) Pune

79 / 100

79) Question

A) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax

B) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

C) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

D) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India

80 / 100

80) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

81 / 100

81) Question

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3

D) 3 only

82 / 100

82) Question

A) ILO

B) IMF

C) UNCTAD

D) WTO

83 / 100

83) Question

A) China

B) Israel

C) Iraq

D) Yemen

84 / 100

84) Question

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3

D) 3 only

85 / 100

85) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

86 / 100

86) Question

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2

C) 3 only

D) 2 and 3

87 / 100

87) Question

A) Committee on Government Assurances

B) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

C) Rules Committee

D) Business Advisory Committee

88 / 100

88) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

89 / 100

89) Question

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3

D) 3 only

90 / 100

90) Question

A) Angola and Zambia

B) Morocco and Tunisia

C) Venezuela and Colombia

D) Yemen and South Sudan

91 / 100

91) Question

A) Indian Banks' Association

B) National Securities Depository Limited

C) National Payments Corporation of India

D) Reserve Bank of India

92 / 100

92) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

93 / 100

93) Question

A) Amnesty International

B) International Court of Justicе

C) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights

D) World Justice Project

94 / 100

94) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

95 / 100

95) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3

C) 2 only

D) 1 and 3

96 / 100

96) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

97 / 100

97) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

98 / 100

98) Question

A) Aurobindo Ghosh

B) Bipin Chandra Pal

C) Lala Lajpat Rai

D) Motilal Nehru

99 / 100

99) Question

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

100 / 100

100) Question

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

Your score is

The average score is 51%

UPSC Prelims 2018 Quiz – GS1

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UPSC Prelims 2018 Quiz – GS1

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