Basic Quiz – 12 September 2026 | Polity

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is not correct: The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction means that provisions of a statute should be interpreted together, rather than in isolation, so as to remove inconsistencies.
• Pair 2 is not correct: The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is used to determine the true nature and character of legislation in order to ascertain the legislative list to which it substantially belongs.
• Pair 3 is not correct: The Doctrine of Colourable Legislation is based on the principle that what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly. It is applied when a legislature indirectly attempts to legislate on a subject outside its competence.

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of 1853 introduced the principle of an open competition system for recruitment to the civil services. The Macaulay Committee was subsequently appointed in 1854.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Act separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s Council. It provided for the addition of six legislative councillors and created a distinct legislative wing.
• Statement 3 is correct: It marked the beginning of local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. Four of the six new legislative members were appointed by the local governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal and Agra.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: Proceeds from fees are not necessarily always merged into the Consolidated Fund of India. A fee is generally a charge imposed for a specific service rendered.
• Statement 2 is not correct: A cess must have statutory authority and cannot be levied merely through an executive order. A cess is a form of tax imposed for a specified purpose.
• Statement 3 is correct: Unlike a cess, a surcharge need not be earmarked for a specified purpose. Under Article 271, the proceeds of a Union surcharge form part of the Consolidated Fund of India and are not shared with the States.

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Article 20(1)’s protection against ex-post facto laws applies to conviction for offences and penalties, not to civil liabilities. Civil laws can therefore operate retrospectively.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 20(2) protects against being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. Mere acquittal without prior punishment does not, by itself, attract Article 20(2), though retrial after acquittal may be barred under criminal-procedure principles.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 20(3) protects a person accused of an offence from being compelled to be a witness against himself. Thus, the constitutional protection operates in the context of criminal accusations.

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: The CBI Director is appointed on the recommendation of a committee comprising the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (or leader of the single largest opposition party) and the Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge nominated by the CJI.
• Statement 2 is not correct: CBI functions under the DoPT for general administrative superintendence, but in investigations of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, superintendence vests in the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
• Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court and High Courts can direct a CBI investigation without obtaining the consent of the concerned State. Ordinarily, however, the CBI requires State consent to exercise its powers within a State under the DSPE Act.