What is the UPSC Civil Services Examination (CSE)?

The UPSC CSE is India’s most prestigious exam conducted to recruit IAS, IPS, IFS, and other Group A & B officers. It has three stages: Prelims, Mains, and Interview.

Who is eligible to apply for UPSC CSE?

Any graduate between 21–32 years of age (with relaxation for reserved categories) can apply. Both final-year students and professionals are eligible.

How many attempts are allowed in UPSC?

General: 6 attempts (till 32 years); OBC(NCL): 9 attempts (till 35 years); SC/ST: Unlimited attempts (till 37 years).

What is the exam pattern of UPSC?

Prelims: Objective (GS & CSAT); Mains: 9 Descriptive Papers (Essay, 4 GS, 2 Optional, 2 Qualifying Language Papers); Interview/Personality Test: Final stage.

How should a beginner start UPSC preparation?

For self-learners: Start with NCERTs (Class 6–12), followed by standard reference books, daily newspaper reading, and consistent answer writing practice. Students associated with 'UnderStand UPSC': Follow the guidance provided by the team of mentors led by Satyam Jain Sir.

Which books are best for UPSC preparation?

Polity: Laxmikanth; History: Spectrum + NCERTs; Geography: NCERT + GC Leong; Economy: Ramesh Singh + Current Affairs; Environment: Majid Husain.

Is coaching necessary for UPSC?

Not compulsory. With the right strategy, self-discipline, and resources, many toppers have cleared UPSC without coaching. Coaching, however, can provide structured guidance.

How important is Current Affairs in UPSC?

Extremely important. Questions in Prelims, Mains, and Interviews are linked to current issues. Reading newspapers like The Hindu/Indian Express or using monthly compilations is essential.

How much time is required to prepare for UPSC?

On average, 1.5 to 2 years of focused preparation with 8–10 hours daily study is ideal. Consistency matters more than duration.

What is the role of NCERTs in UPSC preparation?

NCERTs build strong conceptual clarity in subjects like History, Geography, Polity, and Economy. They are the foundation of UPSC preparation.

How can I manage UPSC preparation with a job?

Follow a time-blocking strategy, prioritize weekends for deep study, and focus on smart notes & revision. Many working professionals have successfully cleared UPSC.

Does UPSC preparation require English medium only?

No. UPSC allows candidates to write Mains in any of the 22 scheduled languages. Many toppers have cleared UPSC in Hindi and regional languages.

What is the cut-off for UPSC Prelims (General Category)?

The cut-off changes every year but usually ranges between 75–98 marks depending on difficulty, vacancies, and number of applicants.

How should I prepare for UPSC answer writing?

Practice daily or weekly answer writing, focus on structure (Intro–Body–Conclusion), and include facts, examples, and current affairs.

Where can I get free UPSC resources?

You can download NCERTs, UPSC Previous Year Papers, Daily Current Affairs PDFs, and Notes for free from the Understand UPSC Free Resources section.

Is CSAT qualifying in UPSC Prelims?

Yes. Candidates need to score at least 33% (66 marks) in CSAT to qualify.

What is the exam pattern of UPSC Prelims?

Two papers: General Studies (200 marks) and CSAT (200 marks, qualifying). Both are objective type.

What is UnderStand UPSC and how is it different from other coaching institutes?

UnderStand UPSC is a mentorship-driven EdTech platform for UPSC aspirants focusing on personalized guidance, affordability, and credibility — unlike traditional coaching setups.

What courses do you offer for UPSC preparation?

We offer Conquer Program (Mains Mentorship), UpSurge Mains Test Series, Transform (Foundation), CSAT by Saransh Gupta Sir, Prelims MAD Execute, Prelims Test Series, Answer Writing Programs, and Optional Subject Mentorship.

How does the mentorship program work?

Each group on Telegram is assigned a mentor who reviews test copies, provides feedback, tracks progress, and conducts sessions via Zoom or Google Meet.

Do you provide online or offline classes?

Yes, both modes are available. Offline has limited seats; online ensures access across India with live mentorship and test feedback.

How can I enroll in a course?

You can register via our website (www.understandupsc.com), mobile app, or contact team. Enrolled students receive LMS access with all resources.

Do you provide free resources?

Yes. Free resources include NCERT PDFs, UPSC Academic Calendar, Syllabus, PYQs, and Daily Current Affairs — available in the Free Resources Section.

How do your test series work?

Our test series mirror UPSC standards, are evaluated by mentors, and come with personalized feedback to ensure continuous improvement.

What is the fee structure for your programs?

Fees vary by program but are designed to remain affordable while maintaining quality. Check the latest pricing on the Courses Page.

Can working professionals also join your programs?

Yes. Our mentorship is flexible and personalized, helping working aspirants balance jobs with preparation.

Do you provide guidance for the UPSC Interview/Personality Test?

Yes. We conduct mock interviews, DAF-based guidance, and personality development under the ANTIM-PAG program.

Do you provide study material and notes?

Yes. Students receive curated notes, strategic value additions, and daily/weekly study targets complementing NCERTs and standard books.

How can I contact the team for queries?

You can contact us via email at support@understandupsc.com or call our helpline at +91 8377072252.

Does UnderStand UPSC provide online classes?

Yes, we offer live online sessions, recorded lectures, and continuous mentorship support.

Are test series available separately?

Yes. We provide separate Prelims and Mains test series with detailed evaluation and feedback, aligned with our classroom programs.

UPSC Static Quizzes January 2026 | UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

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UPSC Static Quizzes January 2026 | UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Topic-wise UPSC Prelims Static MCQs &
Practice Quizzes for January 2026

UPSC Static Quizzes January 2026 provides topic-wise practice questions and important MCQs for UPSC Prelims preparation. These quizzes help aspirants revise static subjects, improve conceptual clarity, and strengthen exam-oriented preparation. Practice UPSC static GK quizzes regularly to boost accuracy, revision, and performance for the UPSC Civil Services Examination.

01st January (Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):
Tsunamis are often referred to as “shallow-water waves” despite their enormous energy.

Reason (R):
Tsunamis have wavelengths much longer than the ocean depth, causing them to behave as shallow-water waves.

Which of the following is correct?

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true, but R is false

D) A is false, but R is true

Explanation:
Tsunamis possess extremely long wavelengths compared to ocean depth. Because wave behaviour depends on the relationship between wavelength and depth, tsunamis behave as shallow-water waves even in deep oceans. Hence, both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

2 / 5

What is the primary component of the Earth’s core, located beneath the mantle?

A) Aluminium

B) Chromium

C) Iron

D) Silicon

Explanation:
The Earth’s core consists of a solid inner core and a liquid outer core. Both layers are composed primarily of iron, with smaller amounts of nickel and other elements. Iron in the core plays a crucial role in generating the Earth’s magnetic field.

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Rivers:

Atmospheric rivers are most common in the mid-latitudes and are rare in tropical regions.
Atmospheric rivers are responsible for transporting up to about 30% of the Earth’s moisture from the tropics to the poles.
The frequency and intensity of atmospheric rivers are expected to increase in a warming climate, leading to more extreme precipitation events.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1 only

Explanation:
Atmospheric rivers occur across various regions, including tropical and mid-latitude areas. They transport a very large proportion of moisture from the tropics toward higher latitudes—much more than stated in Statement 2. Scientific evidence suggests that with global warming, atmospheric rivers are expected to become more frequent and intense, leading to extreme precipitation events. Hence, only Statement 3 is correct.

4 / 5

Which of the following is a consequence of advection inversion?

A) It is caused by rapid cooling of the Earth’s surface on clear nights

B) It occurs when warm air moves over a cold surface

C) It is associated with frontal boundaries and cyclonic activity

D) It leads to the formation of cumulonimbus clouds

Explanation:
Advection inversion occurs when warm air moves horizontally over a colder surface, such as cold ocean currents or snow-covered land. The warm air is cooled from below, creating a temperature inversion where cooler air lies near the surface and warmer air above.

5 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
The California Current is a cold ocean current that flows southward along the western coast of North America.

Statement II:
The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre and is influenced by the Coriolis effect.

Statement III:
The California Current contributes to the arid climate of coastal California by cooling the air and reducing precipitation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both explain Statement I

B) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, but only one explains Statement I

C) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation:
The California Current is a cold current flowing southward along the western coast of North America. It is part of the North Pacific Gyre and is influenced by the Coriolis effect, which governs its direction of flow. The cold nature of the current cools the air above it, reducing evaporation and precipitation, thereby contributing to the arid climate of coastal California. Hence, both Statements II and III are correct and explain Statement I.

Your score is

The average score is 40%

02nd January (Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Tsunamis are often referred to as “shallow-water waves” despite their enormous energy.
Reason (R): Tsunamis have wavelengths much longer than the ocean depth, causing them to behave as shallow-water waves.

Codes:

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true, but R is false

D) A is false, but R is true

Explanation :
Tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths compared to ocean depth, making their behavior dependent on depth rather than wavelength.
This characteristic causes tsunamis to behave as shallow-water waves, even in deep oceans.
Hence, Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).

2 / 5

What is the primary component of the Earth’s core, located beneath the mantle?

A) Aluminium

B) Chromium

C) Iron

D) Silicon

Explanation :
The Earth’s core consists mainly of iron (Fe), with smaller amounts of nickel.
The movement of molten iron in the outer core is responsible for generating Earth’s magnetic field.

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Rivers:

Atmospheric rivers are most common in the mid-latitudes and are rare in tropical regions.
Atmospheric rivers are responsible for transporting up to ~30% of the Earth’s moisture from the tropics to the poles.
The frequency and intensity of atmospheric rivers are expected to increase in a warming climate, leading to more extreme precipitation events.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1 only

Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect because atmospheric rivers occur in both tropical and mid-latitude regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect as atmospheric rivers transport nearly 90% of poleward water vapor, not ~30%.
Statement 3 is correct as climate warming is expected to intensify atmospheric rivers, increasing extreme rainfall events.

4 / 5

Which of the following is a consequence of advection inversion?

A) It is caused by rapid cooling of the Earth’s surface on clear nights

B) It occurs when warm air moves over a cold surface

C) It is associated with frontal boundaries and cyclonic activity

D) It leads to the formation of cumulonimbus clouds

Explanation :
Advection inversion occurs when warm air moves horizontally over a colder surface, causing the lower air layer to cool and become colder than the air above it.
Option A describes radiative inversion.
Option C relates to frontal inversions.
Option D is associated with unstable atmospheric conditions, not inversion.

5 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
The California Current is a cold ocean current that flows southward along the western coast of North America.

Statement II:
The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre and is influenced by the Coriolis effect.

Statement III:
The California Current contributes to the arid climate of coastal California by cooling the air and reducing precipitation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both explain Statement I

B) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, but only one explains Statement I

C) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation :
Statement I is correct as the California Current is a cold current flowing southward along the western coast of North America.
Statement II is correct because the California Current is a component of the North Pacific Gyre, driven by large-scale wind circulation and the Coriolis effect.
Statement III is correct as the cold current cools the overlying air, reduces evaporation, and suppresses rainfall, leading to arid coastal conditions in California.
Both Statements II and III correctly explain Statement I.

Your score is

The average score is 45%

03rd January (Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The thermocline is a layer in the ocean where temperature decreases rapidly with depth.
Reason (R): The thermocline acts as a barrier to the mixing of surface and deep ocean waters.

Codes:

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C) A is true, but R is false.

D) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation :
Assertion (A) is true as the thermocline is characterized by a rapid decrease in temperature with depth.
Reason (R) is true and correctly explains (A) because the sharp temperature gradient creates a density difference that inhibits vertical mixing between surface and deep ocean waters.

2 / 5

Which of the following statements about “ocean salinity” is/are correct?

Salinity is highest in subtropical regions due to high evaporation and low precipitation.
The Arctic Ocean has the lowest salinity due to freshwater input from melting ice and rivers.
Salinity decreases with depth in the open ocean.
The Mediterranean Sea has higher salinity than the Red Sea.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1, 2, and 3 only

C) 3 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct as high evaporation and low rainfall in subtropical regions increase salinity.
Statement 2 is correct because freshwater input from melting ice and rivers lowers Arctic Ocean salinity.
Statement 3 is incorrect as salinity generally increases with depth in the open ocean.
Statement 4 is incorrect because the Red Sea has higher salinity than the Mediterranean Sea.

3 / 5

Which of the following statements about “tides” is/are correct?

Tides are primarily caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun.
Spring tides occur during the full moon and new moon phases.
Neap tides occur when the Sun and Moon are at right angles to each other.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct as tides are mainly caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon, with the Sun also contributing.
Statement 2 is correct because spring tides occur during full moon and new moon phases when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are aligned.
Statement 3 is correct as neap tides occur during the first and third quarter phases when the Sun and Moon are at right angles, resulting in weaker tides.

4 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The summer monsoon in India is characterized by onshore winds.
Reason (R): The land heats up faster than the ocean during summer, creating a low-pressure zone over the land.

Codes:

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C) A is true, but R is false.

D) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation :
Assertion (A) is true as the summer monsoon in India involves winds blowing from the sea toward the land.
Reason (R) is true and correctly explains (A). During summer, the land heats faster than the ocean, creating low pressure over land and higher pressure over the ocean, causing onshore winds.

5 / 5

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the “trade winds”?

A) They blow from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere.

B) They are deflected by the Coriolis effect.

C) They are responsible for the movement of weather systems in the mid-latitudes.

D) They converge near the equator, forming the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).

Explanation :
Trade winds blow from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere toward the equator. They are deflected by the Coriolis effect and converge near the equator, forming the ITCZ. However, trade winds are not responsible for the movement of weather systems in the mid-latitudes, which are mainly controlled by the westerlies.

Your score is

The average score is 44%

05th January

1 / 5

India recently joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) Finance Network. What is the main goal of this partnership?

A) To increase India’s dependency on China for critical minerals.

B) To secure sustainable supply chains for critical minerals like lithium and cobalt.

C) To reduce India’s investment in renewable energy technologies.

D) To promote the export of Indian minerals to Europe.

Explanation :
The MSP Finance Network aims to strengthen global supply chains for critical minerals, which are essential for modern technologies like renewable energy and electronics. India joined this partnership to reduce its dependency on China and ensure a stable supply of these minerals.

Theme : Current affairs | IR | Economy
Level : Easy to moderate

2 / 5

Recently, The World Bank’s World Development Report 2024: The Middle Income has highlighted several challenges faced by middle-income countries like India. Which of the following statements accurately describe these challenges?

India’s leapfrogging from agriculture to the services sector has resulted in inadequate development of manufacturing, leading to unemployment and disguised unemployment.
Middle-income countries face competition from low-wage countries in mature products and advanced technology from high-income countries.
India’s external debt has decreased significantly, reducing vulnerability to global economic shocks.
Climate action poses a challenge for India, as it must balance economic growth with environmental sustainability.

Choose the correct answer:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 4 only

C) 1, 2, and 4 only

D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation :
• Statement 1 is correct because India’s leapfrogging from agriculture to services has left the manufacturing sector underdeveloped, contributing to unemployment and disguised unemployment.
• Statement 2 is correct because middle-income countries like India face a “squeeze” between low-wage competition from poorer countries and advanced technology from richer countries, as highlighted by the IMF and World Bank.
• Statement 3 is incorrect because India’s external debt has increased 6.4% (March 2024), making it more vulnerable to global economic shocks, not less.
• Statement 4 is correct because accelerating climate action presents a challenge for India to grow economically while minimizing environmental damage.

Theme : Current affairs | Economy
Level : Easy

3 / 5

Recently, which operation was launched to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam?

A) Operation Sahayog

B) Operation Sadbhav

C) Operation Raksha

D) Operation Seva

Explanation :
India recently launched Operation Sadbhav, a humanitarian initiative aimed at providing disaster relief and assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam. This effort comes in response to the devastating impact of Typhoon Yagi, which has caused widespread destruction and loss of life in these Southeast Asian nations.

Theme : Current affairs | IR
Level : Moderate

4 / 5

Which of the following statements about the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) is/are correct?

The initiative is legally binding, requiring member countries to adhere to specific commitments under international law.
The IPOI seeks to build partnerships with like-minded countries through practical cooperation, focusing solely on maritime security.
The initiative is based on India’s ‘Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR)’ vision, which emphasizes inclusive development and respect for international maritime laws.

Options :

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 3 only

Explanation :
• Statement 1 is incorrect as the IPOI is a non-treaty-based voluntary arrangement promoting a free and open Indo-Pacific.
• Statement 2 is incorrect as the IPOI focuses on practical cooperation across multiple areas, not just maritime security.
• Statement 3 is correct as the IPOI builds upon India’s SAGAR vision, which emphasizes inclusive development and respect for international maritime laws.

Theme : Current affairs | IR
Level : Moderate
Relevance : Recently, The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) completed 5 years. It was launched by India in 2019 at the East Asia Summit (EAS) in Bangkok (Thailand).

5 / 5

Which of the following statements about the process and time limits of plea bargaining in India is/are correct?

An application for plea bargaining must be filed within 30 days of the framing of charges.
The court has the discretion to reject a plea bargaining application if it deems the accused’s plea involuntary.
Once a plea bargaining application is accepted, the accused cannot appeal the court’s decision.
Plea bargaining is available at any stage of the trial, even after the conviction of the accused.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1, 2, and 3 only

C) 3 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation :
Plea bargaining is an agreement between the defense and prosecution where the accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense or accepts a reduced sentence.
Plea bargaining was introduced in India in 2006 as part of a set of amendments to the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).

Statement 1 is correct as applications must be filed within 30 days of charge framing.
• Statement 2 is correct as the court can reject the application if the plea is deemed involuntary or coerced.
• Statement 3 is incorrect as the accused can appeal if the court rejects the plea bargaining application, but not if it is accepted.
• Statement 4 is incorrect as plea bargaining is not available after conviction; it must be initiated during the trial.

More information:
• According to the Ministry of Law and Justice, a mere 0.11% of cases were resolved through plea bargaining in 2022.
• Section 290 of the Bengal, Nagpur, and Sahar Districts (BNSS) Act makes plea bargaining time-bound, with applications to be made within 30 days from the date of framing of charge.
• Plea bargaining applies only to offenses punishable by up to seven years of imprisonment.
• Cases involving crimes against women, children, or socio-economic offenses are excluded from plea bargaining.

Theme : Current affairs | Polity
Level : Moderate

Your score is

The average score is 20%

06th January

1 / 5

Recently, the Indian Institute of Vegetable Research (IIVR) has developed technology to promote the cultivation of water spinach. Consider the following statements about water spinach :

Water spinach is a semi-aquatic perennial plant native to temperate regions.
It has the potential to purify aquatic habitats due to its semi-aquatic nature.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both

D) None

Explanation :
• Statement 1 is incorrect because water spinach is a semi-aquatic perennial plant native to tropical and subtropical regions, first domesticated in Southeast Asia.
• Statement 2 is correct because water spinach has the potential to purify aquatic habitats due to its semi-aquatic nature.
• Water spinach has significant nutritional value, including folic acid, beta carotene, and vitamins E and C.

Theme : Current affairs | Biodiversity
Level : Moderate

2 / 5

Consider the following statements about tardigrades :

Tardigrades, also known as water bears or moss piglets, are tiny eight-legged aquatic animals found in almost all habitats on Earth.
Tardigrades can survive extreme environmental conditions, including ultraviolet radiation and outer space, by entering a state of suspended metabolism called cryptobiosis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both

D) None

Explanation :
• Statement 1 is correct because tardigrades, also known as water bears or moss piglets, are tiny eight-legged aquatic animals found in almost all habitats on Earth.
• Statement 2 is correct as tardigrades can survive extreme conditions, including ultraviolet radiation and outer space, by entering a state of suspended metabolism called cryptobiosis.

Theme : Current affairs | Science
Level : Moderate

3 / 5

India’s first ‘teal carbon’ study was undertaken at Keoladeo National Park (KNP). Consider the following statements about teal carbon :

Teal carbon refers to carbon stored in non-tidal freshwater wetlands, including vegetation, microbial biomass, and organic matter.
Teal carbon is produced by the incomplete combustion of organic matter and contributes to global warming, similar to black and brown carbon.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both

D) None

Explanation :
Teal carbon refers to the carbon stored in non-tidal freshwater wetlands, including vegetation, microbial biomass, and organic matter. This color-based terminology categorizes organic carbon by function and location. Unlike black and brown carbon, which are produced by incomplete combustion and contribute to global warming, teal carbon plays a crucial role in mitigating climate change. It helps recharge groundwater, reduce flooding, and alleviate urban heat islands, supporting sustainable urban adaptation and ecosystem balance.

Theme : Current affairs | Environment
Level : Hard

4 / 5

Recently, the BHASKAR initiative was launched. It is related with:

A) Promoting Digital Payments

B) Enhancing Entrepreneurial Ecosystem

C) Developing Smart Cities

D) Encouraging Foreign Trade

Explanation :
The BHASKAR initiative is a platform launched by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to boost India’s startup ecosystem. It aims to centralize and streamline collaboration among stakeholders, including startups and investors. The primary goal is to build the world’s largest digital registry for startup stakeholders. This registry will provide a unified platform for connection, collaboration, and resource access. The BHASKAR initiative is part of the Startup India program, which fosters innovation and investment. It will accelerate startup growth, drive economic growth, and create jobs.

Theme : Current affairs | Economy
Level : Moderate

5 / 5

The Chief Economic Advisor of India recently raised concerns about excessive financialisation in the country. Consider the following statements about financialisation and its implications:

Financialisation refers to the growing influence of financial markets, institutions, and elites over economic policy and outcomes, often at the expense of traditional physical assets like real estate and gold.
One of the key drivers of financialisation in India is the rising middle class with higher disposable income, coupled with government incentives for financial instruments.
Excessive financialisation reduces income inequality by distributing financial gains more evenly across the population.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1 and 2 only

Explanation :
• Statement 1 is correct because financialisation refers to the increasing influence of financial markets, institutions, and elites over economic policy and outcomes, often shifting focus away from traditional physical assets like real estate and gold.
• Statement 2 is correct because rising middle-class income, government incentives for financial instruments, and increasing digitisation are key drivers of financialisation in India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect because excessive financialisation increases income inequality, as financial gains are often concentrated among the top 1% of the population through equity ownership. Excessive financialisation distorts the economy by prioritising profits from financial investments over trade in goods and services.

Theme : Current affairs | Economy
Level : Moderate

Your score is

The average score is 0%

07th January 2026

1 / 5

India’s 1st silicon carbide manufacturing facility to be set up in Odisha. What is Silicon Carbide (SiC) commonly known as?

A) Carbonite

B) Carborundum

C) Mercury

D) Carbonium

Explanation :
Silicon Carbide (SiC), also known as carborundum, is a synthetically produced crystalline compound composed of silicon and carbon. This exceptionally hard material boasts outstanding thermomechanical characteristics, including:

High thermal conductivity
• Excellent mechanical properties
• Superior resistance to wear and oxidation

The versatile applications of Silicon Carbide include:
• Semiconductor devices
• Mechanical seals
• Structural ceramics
• Heat exchangers
• Optical mirrors
• Ballistic armor

The establishment of India’s first Silicon Carbide manufacturing facility in Odisha marks a significant milestone in the country’s journey towards self-sufficiency in advanced materials.

Theme : Current affairs | Science and tech
Level : Hard

2 / 5

Consider the following statements about Organ-on-Chip (OoC) Technology:

Organoids and spheroids are examples of 3D culture systems that mimic human tissues and diseases, offering advantages over traditional 2D cell cultures.
Organ-on-Chip (OoC) technology uses microfluidics and cells to replicate human physiological conditions, making it useful for drug testing and disease modeling.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :

Statement 1 is Correct as organoids and spheroids are advanced 3D culture systems used to model human tissues and diseases.

Organoids:
◦ Created by growing cells in a controlled 3D environment.
◦ Self-organize into structures that mimic real organs.
◦ Used to study organ development, genetic diseases, and personalized drug responses.
Spheroids:
◦ 3D aggregates of cells that better replicate tumor behavior.
◦ Provide insights into cancer biology, drug resistance, and metastasis.

Advantages over 2D cultures:
• 2D cultures lack structural complexity and cell–cell interactions.
• 3D systems better mimic in vivo conditions, enabling accurate drug screening and disease modeling.

Statement 2 is correct as Organ-on-Chip (OoC) is a microfluidic device that replicates human organ functions and physiological conditions.

How it works:
◦ Combines living cells with micro-engineered channels and sensors.
◦ Mimics mechanical forces and biochemical gradients.
Applications:
◦ Drug Testing: Predict drug efficacy/toxicity more accurately.
◦ Disease Modeling: Replicate conditions like asthma, cancer, or heart disease.
◦ Regenerative Medicine: Test engineered tissues for transplants.

Key Milestone:
• First reported in a 2010 study, where a lung-on-a-chip replicated alveolar-capillary interface functions.

Theme : Current affairs | Science and tech
Level : Moderate to Hard

3 / 5

Consider the following statements about Neuralink’s Blindsight and Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) technology:

The Blindsight implant, developed by Neuralink, aims to restore vision in blind patients by directly stimulating the optic nerves.
A Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) system works by acquiring brain signals, analyzing them, and translating them into commands for an output device, bypassing the need for peripheral nerves and muscles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :
• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Blindsight implant does not stimulate the optic nerves. Instead, it targets the visual cortex of the brain to restore vision, provided the visual cortex is intact.
• Statement 2 is correct because a BCI system acquires brain signals, analyzes them, and translates them into commands for an output device, bypassing the need for peripheral nerves and muscles.

Theme : Current affairs | Science and tech
Level : Moderate to Hard

4 / 5

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is working on the Gaganyaan Programme and plans to build the Bhartiya Antriksh Station (BAS). Consider the following statements:

The Bhartiya Antriksh Station (BAS) will be India’s first space station, planned to be operational by 2035.
BAS will be used for microgravity research, Earth observation, and fostering innovations in space technology.
India’s current share in the global space economy is 10%, and BAS aims to increase it further.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Explanation :
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has revised its Gaganyaan programme, aiming to launch four missions by 2026 and develop the first module of the Bhartiya Antriksh Station (BAS) by December 2028. BAS is India’s ambitious space station project, designed for scientific research and orbiting 400–450 km above the Earth’s surface. The space station will comprise five modules, built in phases, with the first module launching in 2028 and operationalization by 2035. BAS will be used for microgravity research, Earth observation, and fostering innovations in space technology. Hence, Statement 1 & 2 is correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect as India’s current share in the global space economy is 2%, not 10%. The goal is to increase it to 10% in the future.

Theme : Current affairs | Science and technology
Level : Moderate to Hard

5 / 5

Recently Salar de Atacama was in the news. Where is it located?

A) Chile

B) Argentina

C) Bolivia

D) Peru

Explanation :
Researchers at the University of Chile have sounded the alarm that Chile’s iconic Atacama salt flat, also known as Salar de Atacama, is sinking due to lithium brine extraction.

About the Atacama Salt Flat:
Located in the heart of Chile’s Atacama Desert, the driest place on Earth, the Atacama salt flat is a natural wonder and a vital source of lithium.

Key Facts:
• Largest salt deposit in Chile, boasting a vast, rugged white surface.
• Conceals a massive salt lake beneath, harboring one of the world’s largest lithium reserves.
• Situated in the Atacama Desert, an extreme environment known for its arid conditions.
• Features the San Pedro River delta in its northern basin, a unique geological formation.

Theme : Current affairs | Mapping
Level : Hard

Your score is

The average score is 13%

08th January 2026

1 / 5

Consider the following statements about the 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad and the International Chess Federation (FIDE):

The Indian contingent won gold medals in both the open and women’s categories at the 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad held in New York.
FIDE, the governing body of chess, was recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) as a Global Sporting Organization in 1999.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation :
• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Indian team won gold medals in both the open and women’s categories at the 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad in Budapest, Hungary, not New York.
• Statement 2 is correct because FIDE, the governing body of chess, was recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) as a Global Sporting Organization in 1999.

More information:
• About the 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad:
◦ Held in Budapest, Hungary.
◦ The 44th Chess Olympiad took place in India (Chennai) for the first time.

Trophies:
◦ The Hamilton-Russell Cup was awarded to the winning team in the open section.
◦ The Vera Menchik Cup went to the winning team in the women’s section.
About FIDE:
◦ FIDE regulates all international chess competitions.
◦ Recognized by the IOC as a Global Sporting Organization in 1999.

Theme : Current affairs | Sports
Level : Moderate

Explanation :
• Statement 1 is correct: The Mankidia tribe is a semi-nomadic section of the Birhor tribe and is renowned for their skill in catching monkeys and trapping small birds and animals.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Mankidia tribe does not reside in permanent concrete structures; they live in temporary dome-shaped leaf huts called Kumbha. They are also not known for advanced agricultural practices as they are primarily hunter-gatherers.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Mankidia tribe speaks a language that belongs to the Munda branch of the Austro-Asiatic language family, not the Dravidian language family.
• Statement 4 is correct: Their traditional dwellings are dome-shaped leaf huts known as Kumbha.

Theme : Current affairs | Social issues
Level : Moderate

2 / 5

The Mankidia tribe, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Odisha, has recently been granted habitat rights under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. Which of the following statements about the Mankidia tribe is/are correct?

The Mankidia tribe is a semi-nomadic section of the Birhor tribe and is known for their expertise in catching monkeys and trapping small birds and animals.
They are known for their advanced agricultural practices.
The Mankidia tribe speaks a language that belongs to the Dravidian language family.
Their traditional dwellings are dome-shaped leaf huts called Kumbha.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 4 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 3, and 4 only

3 / 5

Recently, the “Wood Wide Web” was in the news. What is it related to?

A) Internet network

B) Fungal network connecting trees

C) Forest conservation

D) Wildlife habitat

Explanation :
Just as humans rely on the internet to connect and communicate, trees and plants have their own intricate network — fungi. Scientists have dubbed this phenomenon the “Wood Wide Web.”

At its core, the Wood Wide Web consists of underground fungal threads, known as mycelium, that weave together the roots of plants. This complex network enables trees to:

Share essential nutrients
• Communicate through subtle chemical signals

Theme : Current affairs | Biodiversity
Level : Easy

4 / 5

Recently, “J0529–4351” was in the news. It is related to:

A) Discovery of a new planet

B) Brightest quasar ever observed

C) Launch of a new space telescope

D) Detection of gravitational waves

Explanation :
Astronomers stunned by discovery of the brightest quasar ever observed. Using the European Southern Observatory’s (ESO) Very Large Telescope (VLT), scientists have identified the brightest quasar ever recorded, designated J0529–4351.

What are Quasars?
Quasars, short for “Quasi-stellar Radio Sources,” are incredibly luminous objects that reside at the cores of distant galaxies. Powered by supermassive black holes, quasars emit an immense amount of energy across the entire electromagnetic spectrum, including:

Radio waves
• Visible light
• Ultraviolet (UV) rays
• Infrared waves
• X-rays
• Gamma-rays

Despite their extraordinary brightness, quasars are invisible to the naked eye due to their vast distances from Earth.

Theme : Science and tech
Level : Hard

5 / 5

Quantum Natural Language Processing (QNLP) is an emerging field that combines quantum computing with natural language processing. Which of the following statements accurately describes a key feature and advantage of QNLP compared to traditional Large Language Models (LLMs)?

A) QNLP focuses exclusively on improving syntactic accuracy in language parsing, enabling flawless grammar correction.

B) QNLP integrates syntax and semantics simultaneously, reducing energy consumption and requiring fewer parameters than classical LLMs.

C) QNLP prioritizes semantic interpretation over syntax, making it superior for sentiment analysis but weaker in structural language tasks.

D) QNLP replaces classical NLP by using quantum algorithms to process syntax and semantics in entirely separate computational layers.

Explanation :
QNLP unifies syntactic (structural) and semantic (meaning-related) analysis, addressing a key limitation of traditional LLMs that treat them separately. It leverages quantum computing to reduce computational complexity, leading to lower energy costs and fewer parameters compared to classical models. Hence, Option B is the correct answer.

Option A is incorrect as QNLP does not focus exclusively on syntax; it combines syntax and semantics.
• Option C is incorrect as QNLP does not prioritize semantics over syntax; it balances both.
• Option D is incorrect as QNLP does not process syntax and semantics in “separate layers”; it integrates them using quantum principles.

Theme : Current affairs | Science and tech
Level : Moderate to Hard

Your score is

The average score is 28%

16th January 2026

1 / 5

Q.1 Which of the following best describes the impact of the Carnatic Wars on British expansion in India?

A) They established French dominance in southern India completely.

B) They had no significant impact on British territorial gains in India.

C) They led to the immediate annexation of the Carnatic region by the British.

D) They demonstrated the effectiveness of European military tactics and alliances with Indian rulers.

Explanation:
The Carnatic Wars were a series of conflicts between the British and the French in southern India. Although the wars did not result in immediate territorial gains for the British, they demonstrated the effectiveness of European military tactics and the importance of forming alliances with Indian rulers.
The British learned valuable lessons from these wars, including the need to adapt to local conditions, form alliances with Indian rulers, and use European military tactics to their advantage. These lessons would later inform British expansionist policies in India, ultimately contributing to their success in establishing control over the subcontinent.

Theme: Advent of the Europeans in India
Source: Spectrum by Rajiv Ahir

2 / 5

Q.2 Where was the first Portuguese fort established in India?

A) Goa

B) Calicut

C) Cochin

D) Diu

Explanation:
The Portuguese established their first permanent fort in India at Cochin (now Kochi) in 1503. This fort, known as Fort Emmanuel (often referred to as Fort Manuel), was built with the permission of the Raja of Cochin, who was a local ruler.

Theme: Advent of Europeans in India
Source: Spectrum by Rajiv Ahir

3 / 5

Q.3 What was a notable outcome of European trading companies, particularly the British East India Company, establishing their presence in India?

A) Widespread industrialization and modernization of traditional crafts.

B) Significant growth of inland trade centers and riverine towns.

C) Expansion of port cities and their emergence as major economic hubs.

D) Rapid urbanization and migration of rural populations to cities.

Explanation:
The arrival of European traders, particularly the British East India Company, in India led to the growth and expansion of port cities such as Bombay (now Mumbai), Calcutta (now Kolkata), and Madras (now Chennai). These cities became major economic hubs, facilitating trade between India and Europe.
The British East India Company established its trading posts and factories in these port cities, which attracted merchants, artisans, and laborers. The growth of these cities was driven by the increasing volume of trade, including the export of textiles, spices, and other commodities.
Widespread industrialization and modernization of traditional crafts did not occur during this period. Instead, traditional Indian industries such as textiles declined due to competition from European manufactured goods.
Significant growth of inland trade centers and riverine towns did not occur, as the focus of European trade was on coastal cities and ports.
Rapid urbanization and migration of rural populations to cities did not occur on a large scale during this period.

Theme: Government administration and policies
Source: PYQ modification (2020 & 2018)

4 / 5

Q.4 Which of the following statements is not a consequence of the Treaty of Sagauli (1816) between the British East India Company and Nepal?

A) Nepal ceded significant territory to the British, including the Garhwal and Kumaon regions.

B) The treaty marked the beginning of large-scale recruitment of Gorkha soldiers into the British Indian Army.

C) The British gained control of the Chumbi district as part of the treaty.

D) The treaty facilitated British trade with Central Asia by providing access to new routes and markets.

Explanation:
The Treaty of Sagauli was signed on March 4, 1816, between the British East India Company and Nepal. It marked the end of the Anglo-Nepal War and had significant consequences for Nepal and the British.
Under the treaty, Nepal ceded territories including Garhwal and Kumaon, accepted a British resident, and withdrew from Sikkim. The treaty also facilitated British trade with Central Asia and led to large-scale recruitment of Gorkhas into the British Indian Army.
However, the Chumbi district came under British control later during the Anglo-Tibetan War, not as a result of the Treaty of Sagauli.

Theme: Expansion and consolidation of British power
Source: Spectrum by Rajiv Ahir

5 / 5

Q.5 The "Forward Policy" of the British East India Company, initiated during Lord Auckland's tenure, was primarily aimed at:

A) Consolidating British control over the Indian subcontinent by annexing neighboring kingdoms and principalities.

B) Countering the Russian expansion in Central Asia.

C) Securing trade routes and markets in Central Asia, in collaboration with the Russian Empire.

D) Spreading Western education and social reforms in Afghanistan.

Explanation:
The "Forward Policy" aimed to counter Russian expansion in Central Asia, initiated during Lord Auckland's tenure. The British feared Russian influence in Afghanistan would threaten British India's security.
To prevent this, they signed the Tripartite Treaty with the Sikh Empire and Shah Shuja in 1838. However, the British invasion of Afghanistan in 1839 ended in disaster. Despite the failure, the Forward Policy marked a turning point in British India's history, highlighting British concerns about Russian expansion and the need to secure India's borders.

Theme: Expansion and consolidation of the British Empire

Your score is

The average score is 36%

21st January 2026

1 / 5

Which of the following was NOT a consequence of the British suppression of the Revolt of 1857?

A) The dissolution of the East India Company and the establishment of direct British Crown rule

B) The introduction of policies to protect the rights of Indian soldiers.

C) The implementation of the "Divide and Rule" policy to prevent future uprisings.

D) The reorganization of the Indian army to reduce the proportion of Indian soldiers.

Explanation:
The British suppression of the Revolt of 1857 led to the dissolution of the East India Company and the establishment of direct British Crown rule.
The British also implemented the policy of "Divide and Rule" and reorganized the Indian army to reduce the proportion of Indian soldiers and increase British control.
However, the British did not introduce policies to protect the rights of Indian soldiers. Instead, they reduced their influence and altered recruitment patterns to prevent future rebellions.

Theme: Revolt of 1857

2 / 5

Which of the following statements best explains the underlying cause of the Revolt of 1857?

A) The revolt was primarily a religious movement against British rule.

B) The revolt was a spontaneous uprising with no clear leadership or objectives.

C) The revolt was a culmination of economic, political, and social grievances against British rule.

D) The revolt was solely triggered by the introduction of the Enfield rifle and its greased cartridges.

Explanation:
The Revolt of 1857 was a complex and multifaceted event that cannot be attributed to a single cause. While the introduction of the Enfield rifle and its greased cartridges acted as a spark, the revolt was the culmination of long-standing economic exploitation, political subjugation, social disruption, and cultural interference by the British.
These grievances created widespread resentment among sepoys, peasants, artisans, and traditional elites, making the revolt a mass uprising rather than a mere military mutiny.

Theme: Revolt of 1857

3 / 5

Consider the following statements about British economic policies in India:

The British imposed restrictions on the entry of British goods into India until 1858.
After the mid-19th century, significant amounts of British capital were invested in the Indian economy.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because the East India Company's monopoly on Indian trade was abolished in 1813, and the British government imposed a policy of free trade on India. This allowed British goods to enter India freely, which hurt Indian handicrafts.
Statement 2 is correct because after the mid-19th century, particularly after 1850, the British invested large amounts of capital in India, mainly in railways, loans to the Indian government, and other industries.

Theme: British government policies and administration

4 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Shuja-ud-daula maintained Awadh’s autonomy by openly defying the symbolic authority of the Mughal emperor.
Shuja-ud-daula allied with the Marathas against Ahmad Shah Abdali during the Third Battle of Panipat (1761).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both

D) None

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because Shuja-ud-daula, the Nawab of Awadh, maintained a nominal allegiance to the Mughal emperor and did not openly defy his authority.
Statement 2 is also incorrect because Shuja-ud-daula allied with Ahmad Shah Abdali against the Marathas during the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761.
Therefore, D is the correct answer.

Theme: Regional powers

5 / 5

The Battle of Swally was fought in 1612 between:

A) English East India Company and the Dutch

B) Portuguese and the Dutch

C) English East India Company and the French

D) English East India Company and the Portuguese

Explanation:
The Battle of Swally was a naval battle fought in 1612 between the English East India Company and the Portuguese. The English, led by Captain Thomas Best, defeated the Portuguese fleet, marking a significant victory for the English in their struggle for trade supremacy in the Indian Ocean.

Theme: Advent of European powers in India

Your score is

The average score is 43%

24th January 2026

1 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded the Home Rule League in April 1916, in Maharashtra.
N.C. Kelkar was not associated with the Home Rule Movement.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded the Home Rule League in April 1916, in Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is incorrect because N.C. Kelkar was associated with the Home Rule Movement and was a close associate of Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Theme: Indian National Movement

2 / 5

The Treaty of Allahabad (1765) granted the British East India Company the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. What was the most significant long-term economic impact of this agreement?

A) It enabled the British to consolidate their control over Indian trade routes, thereby securing a monopoly over the Indian Ocean trade.

B) It led to a significant reduction in the British East India Company's administrative costs, allowing them to invest more in Indian infrastructure.

C) It resulted in the British East India Company's increased reliance on Indian bankers and merchants to manage their finances.

D) It allowed the British to directly collect revenue, which funded their further expansion in India and enabled them to exert greater control over the Indian economy.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Treaty of Allahabad (1765) marked a significant turning point in Indian history, as it granted the British East India Company the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. This meant that the British East India Company was now responsible for collecting revenue on behalf of the Mughal Emperor.
The most significant long-term economic impact of this agreement was that it allowed the British to directly collect revenue, which funded their further expansion in India. This revenue enabled the British to:

Consolidate their control over Indian territories
Exert greater influence over Indian politics and economy
Fund their military campaigns and administrative expenses

In essence, the Diwani rights granted to the British East India Company provided them with a steady source of revenue, which they used to further their colonial ambitions in India.

Theme: Expansion and consolidation of British power

3 / 5

Sawai Jai Singh II of Amber is most famous for constructing the:

A) Hawa Mahal

B) Amer Fort

C) Jantar Mantar observatories

D) City Palace

Explanation:
Sawai Jai Singh II constructed the Jantar Mantar observatories in Jaipur in the early 18th century. The Jantar Mantar is a collection of architectural astronomical instruments that were used to measure time, track celestial movements, and observe the stars. It is one of the largest and most well-preserved observatories of its kind in the world.
Sawai Jai Singh II was a keen astronomer and mathematician, and he built the Jantar Mantar to promote the study of astronomy and to improve the accuracy of astronomical observations.
Hence, Option C is the correct answer.
While Sawai Jai Singh II did build several iconic structures in Jaipur, the Hawa Mahal was actually built by his grandson, Sawai Pratap Singh, in 1799. Hence, Option A is not the correct answer.
The Amer Fort was actually built by the Meena dynasty and later expanded and renovated by the Kachwaha dynasty, to which Sawai Jai Singh II belonged. However, he did not construct the fort from scratch. Hence, Option B is not the correct answer.
While Sawai Jai Singh II did build the City Palace in Jaipur, it is not his most famous architectural contribution. The City Palace was built as a royal residence, and while it is an impressive structure, it is not as unique or historically significant as the Jantar Mantar observatories. Hence, Option D is not the correct answer.

Theme: Regional powers

4 / 5

A major cause of friction between the EIC and the Mughal authorities in Bengal in the 1750s was:

A) Misuse of dastaks by private traders.

B) The EIC's fortification of Fort William in Calcutta without permission.

C) The French alliance with the Mughals.

D) Religious conversion efforts by British missionaries.

Explanation:
In the 1750s, the British East India Company (EIC) was granted dastaks (permits) by the Mughal authorities, which allowed them to trade freely in Bengal. However, private British traders began to misuse these dastaks, using them to evade customs duties and trade illegally.
This misuse of dastaks created tensions between the EIC and the Mughal authorities, who saw it as a violation of their agreements and an attempt to evade taxes. The Mughal authorities, particularly the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daula, became increasingly frustrated with the EIC's failure to control its private traders and prevent the misuse of dastaks.
This friction ultimately contributed to the outbreak of the Bengal War and the Battle of Plassey in 1757.

Theme: Expansion and consolidation of British power

5 / 5

Which of the following was the primary cause of the Battle of Buxar?

A) The British wanted to annex Bengal for its rich resources.

B) The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II sought to regain control over Bengal.

C) The combined forces of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daula, and Shah Alam II aimed to challenge British expansion in India.

D) The French incited Indian rulers to attack the British.

Explanation:
The Battle of Buxar was fought in 1764 between the British East India Company and the combined forces of Mir Qasim (the Nawab of Bengal), Shuja-ud-Daula (the Nawab of Awadh), and Shah Alam II (the Mughal Emperor).
The primary cause of the battle was that the combined forces of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daula, and Shah Alam II aimed to challenge British expansion in India. They formed an alliance to counter the growing influence and power of the British East India Company in Bengal and other parts of India.
The British East India Company's expansionist policies, including its annexation of Bengal and its attempts to exert control over other Indian states, had created tensions with the Indian rulers. The alliance between Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daula, and Shah Alam II was a response to this British expansionism, and the Battle of Buxar was a culmination of these tensions.

Theme: Expansion and consolidation of British power

Your score is

The average score is 56%

27th January 2026

1 / 5

Which one among the following explains the meaning of the Safety Valve Theory in the context of Indian National Movement?

A) A theory that argued that the Congress was formed as a safe outlet to the discontented educated Indians.

B) A theory that argued that the Congress was formed as a sale outlet to the hostile attitude of the British towards the Indian people.

C) A theory which believed that the British and the ex-rebels of 1857 should amicably resolve their differences against each other.

D) An idea aimed at promoting goodwill among the Indian people.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Safety Valve Theory, first proposed by Marxist historian R. Palme Dutt, posits that the British government permitted the formation of the Indian National Congress as a strategic measure to channel the growing discontent of the Indian people into a safe and non-violent outlet.
By doing so, the British aimed to prevent the escalation of protests into more radical and violent forms, thereby maintaining control and stability in the region.

Theme: Indian National Movement

2 / 5

The Treaty of Srirangapatnam resulted in:

A) Tipu Sultan becoming a British ally

B) Tipu Sultan ceding half of his kingdom to the British

C) The British gaining control over the entire Kingdom of Mysore

D) The establishment of a subsidiary alliance between the British and Mysore

Explanation:
The Treaty of Srirangapatnam, signed in 1792, imposed harsh terms on Tipu Sultan, including the cession of half of his kingdom to the British East India Company. This significantly weakened Tipu Sultan's power and paved the way for future British expansion in the region.

Theme: Expansion and consolidation of British power

3 / 5

Examine the two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement I: Non-cooperation began in Punjab with the student movement inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai in January 1921.
Statement II: The Sikh-dominated central Punjab countryside was stirred by the powerful Akali upsurge.

Select the correct answer:

A) Both the statements are individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

B) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Explanation

Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true.
Statement I is true because the Non-Cooperation Movement did indeed begin in Punjab with a student movement inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai in January 1921. Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent Indian nationalist leader who played a significant role in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Statement II is also true because the Sikh-dominated central Punjab countryside was indeed stirred by the powerful Akali upsurge. The Akali movement was a Sikh reform movement that emerged in the early 20th century, and it played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.
However, Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. The Akali upsurge and the Non-Cooperation Movement were two separate movements, although they did overlap and influence each other. The Non-Cooperation Movement was a broader Indian nationalist movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, while the Akali movement was a Sikh-specific movement.
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Theme: Indian National Movement

4 / 5

Which of the following statement(s) about the formation of the Indian National Congress is/are true?

The Indian National Congress was formed at a national convention held in Calcutta in December 1885 under the presidency of Motilal Nehru.
The Safety Valve Theory regarding the formation of the Indian National Congress emerged from a biography of A.O. Hume written by William Wedderburn.
An early decision was that the President would be from the same region where the session was to be held.
W.C. Bannerjee was the first President of the Indian National Congress.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 2 and 3

C) 2 and 4

D) 1 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay (now Mumbai) in December 1885 under the presidency of W.C. Bannerjee, not Motilal Nehru, who became president in 1919.
Statement 2 is correct. The Safety Valve Theory regarding the formation of the Indian National Congress emerged from a biography of A.O. Hume written by William Wedderburn.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Congress sessions were rotated among different regions to reach all parts of the country, the President was not necessarily from the same region where the session was held.
Statement 4 is correct. W.C. Bannerjee was indeed the first President of the Indian National Congress, elected at the inaugural session in Bombay in 1885.

Theme: Indian National Movement

5 / 5

Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct?

It was marked by significant and widespread participation of peasants from Karnataka.
It was marked by non-brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra.
It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras.
It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much larger scale.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1 only

B) 1, 2 and 4

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct as the Non-Cooperation Movement saw significant participation from non-brahmin lower castes in Madras and Maharashtra.
Statement 1 is incorrect as while peasants from various regions participated in the movement, Karnataka was not specifically notable for peasant participation. In fact, the movement largely gained momentum in regions where the impact of British rule was more visible and oppressive, such as Punjab and Bengal. These regions had experienced significant economic exploitation, cultural suppression, and political oppression under British rule, which fueled the desire for independence and self-rule.
In contrast, Karnataka, while not entirely unaffected by British rule, did not experience the same level of economic exploitation or cultural suppression as some other regions. As a result, the participation of peasants from Karnataka in the Non-Cooperation Movement was not as significant as it was in other regions.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the Non-Cooperation Movement was actually marked by significant labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal, and Madras. While the movement focused on boycotting British goods and institutions, labour issues were also part of the broader economic grievances that motivated people to join the movement.
In Assam, for example, tea plantation workers participated in the movement, demanding better working conditions and higher wages. Similarly, in Bengal, jute mill workers and railway workers joined the movement, protesting against exploitation and poor working conditions.
The labour unrest during the Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant aspect of the broader struggle against British rule. It highlighted the economic exploitation faced by Indian workers under colonial rule and paved the way for future labour movements in India.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 actually led to Gandhiji calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement altogether, rather than continuing it.

Theme: Indian National Movement

Your score is

The average score is 25%

28th January 2026

1 / 5

Which freedom fighter wrote the books such as "Divipantar Banshi, Pather Ingit, Amar Atmakatha, Agnijug"?

A) Khudiram Bose

B) Prafulla Chaki

C) Barindra Kumar Ghosh

D) Surya Sen

Answer: C

Explanation:

Barindra Kumar Ghosh (1880–1959) was a revolutionary, journalist, and writer.
He was the younger brother of Sri Aurobindo Ghosh.
He was a key member of the Anushilan Samiti in Bengal.
He played a major role in the Alipore Bomb Case (1908).
He was imprisoned in the Cellular Jail, Andaman.
After his release in 1920, he shifted towards:
- Journalism
- Spiritual writing
He founded The Dawn Society’s Magazine and later edited Dainik Basumati.
His notable works include:
- Divipantar Banshi
- Pather Ingit
- Amar Atmakatha
- Agnijug
- Rishi Rajnarayan
- The Tale of My Exile

Theme: Indian National Movement

2 / 5

Who founded the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti, a prominent organization during the Swadeshi Movement?

A) Ashwini Kumar Dutta

B) Bipin Chandra Pal

C) Aurobindo Ghosh

D) Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer: A

Explanation:

Ashwini Kumar Dutta was a leading figure of the Swadeshi Movement.
He founded the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti to:
- Promote locally made goods
- Encourage boycott of foreign products
The Samiti played an important role in:
- Spreading Swadeshi ideas at the grassroots level
- Bridging the gap between moderates and extremists
In 1908, the British government:
- Banned the Samiti
- Imprisoned Ashwini Kumar Dutta
After his release in 1910, he focused on:
- Education
- Promoting Swadeshi songs and nationalist awareness

Theme: Indian National Movement

3 / 5

Who was the first president of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?

A) G Subramania Iyer

B) P Rangaiah Naidu

C) P Ananda Charlu

D) M Veeraraghavachariar

Answer: B

Explanation:

The first president of the Madras Mahajana Sabha was P. Rangaiah Naidu.
The Sabha was founded in 1884 by:
- M. Veeraraghavachariar
- G. Subramania Iyer
- P. Ananda Charlu
Its objective was to promote:
- Indian political rights
- Self-governance
The Madras Mahajana Sabha later became a forerunner of the Indian National Congress.
It advocated moderate constitutional reforms such as:
- Reduction in taxes
- Curtailment of government expenditure
- Civil Service examinations in India
- Abolition of the Council of India in London
P. Rangaiah Naidu served as its first president.

Theme: Indian National Movement

4 / 5

Which of the following Statements about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are Correct?

The Champaran region had a long tradition of anti-planter discontent and agitation.
Mahatma Gandhi gave all India publicity to the grievances of Champaran cultivators.
The cultivators of Champaran had protested against excessive taxation on sugar.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.
- Champaran had a long history of resistance against British planters.
- The main issue was the forced cultivation of indigo (Tinkathia system).
Statement 2 is correct.
- Mahatma Gandhi’s intervention brought national attention to the grievances of the Champaran peasants.
- It highlighted the exploitation of cultivators by British indigo planters.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
- The protest was not against sugar taxation.
- It was against forced indigo cultivation and oppressive planter practices.

Theme: Indian National Movement

5 / 5

Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I:
Dadabhai Naoroji argued that what was being drained out was ‘potential surplus’ that could generate more economic development in India if invested in India.

Statement II:
Imperialists believed that India was brought into the large capitalist world market and that was in itself a progress towards modernisation.

A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

B) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

C) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.

D) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Dadabhai Naoroji’s argument was related to the Drain of Wealth Theory.
He stated that India’s wealth was being drained away to Britain.
According to him, this drained amount was a “potential surplus” which could have generated economic development if invested within India.
Statement II reflects the imperialist perspective, which viewed India’s integration into the global capitalist market as progress and modernisation.
Although both statements are individually true, they represent different and opposing viewpoints.
Therefore, Statement II does not explain Statement I.

Theme: Indian National Movement

Your score is

The average score is 20%

29th January 2026

1 / 5

The Ilbert Bill, introduced in 1883, aimed to achieve a significant reform in the Indian judicial system. What was its primary objective?

A) To establish separate courts for Indians and Europeans

B) To grant Indians voting rights

C) To reorganize the British judicial system in India

D) To empower Indian judges to try European British subjects in criminal cases

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Ilbert Bill, introduced in 1883, aimed to empower Indian judges to try European British subjects in criminal cases. Prior to this, Europeans were exempt from being tried by Indian judges. This created inequality and injustice, as Indians were subject to British judges, while Europeans were not.
The bill sought to address this anomaly. However, it faced opposition from the European community and was eventually modified. The bill's objective was to promote equality and fairness in the judicial system. It was a significant attempt at reform during the British colonial era.

Theme: Government Administration and Policies

2 / 5

The Limitation Law of 1859, enacted by the British, aimed to address a specific social issue in India. What was the primary objective of this law?

A) Advocacy of widow rights.

B) To protect farmers from exploitation by moneylenders.

C) To curb child marriages in India.

D) To decentralize legislative authority to provincial governments.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Limitation Act of 1859, enacted by the British, was a legislative measure aimed at protecting ryots (farmers) from exploitation by moneylenders. The Act sought to prevent the accumulation of interest over time and promote fair lending practices.
A key provision of the Act stipulated that loan agreements between moneylenders and ryots would be valid for a maximum period of three years. This provision was designed to prevent the perpetuation of debt and safeguard the interests of ryots.

Theme: Government Administration and Policies

3 / 5

Which of the following statements about Warren Hastings' judicial reforms are correct?

District Diwani Adalats were established to try civil disputes.
District Faujdari Adalats were set up to try criminal disputes and were placed under British officers.
A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta.
A Law Commission was set up under Macaulay for codification of Indian laws.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1, 2, 3 only

B) 1, 2, 4 only

C) 1, 3, 4 only

D) 2, 3, 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Judicial Reforms under British Colonial Rule :
Warren Hastings (1772–1785)

During Warren Hastings' tenure, significant judicial reforms were implemented to streamline the Indian legal system. Key reforms included:

Establishment of District Diwani Adalats in each district to adjudicate civil disputes.
Creation of District Faujdari Adalats to try criminal cases, with an Indian officer assisted by qazis and muftis.
Establishment of a Supreme Court in Calcutta under the Regulating Act of 1773.

William Bentinck (1828–1833):
William Bentinck's administration introduced further reforms to modernize the Indian judicial system. Notable reforms included:

Abolition of the four Circuit Courts, with their functions transferred to collectors.
Establishment of the Sadar Diwani Adalat (Civil Court) and Sadar Nizamat Adalat (Criminal Court) in Allahabad.
Introduction of vernacular languages or Persian as official court languages, while English replaced Persian in the Supreme Court.
Formation of a Law Commission under Thomas Macaulay in 1833 to codify Indian laws.

Theme: Government Administration and Policies

4 / 5

The Bombay Mill Hands Association was a significant milestone in India's labor movement. Which of the following statements accurately describe this association?

Lala Lajpat Rai founded it.
It advocated for reduced working hours and a weekly holiday for workers.

Which of the following options is correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both

D) None

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Bombay Mill Hands Association was actually founded by Narain Meghajee Lokhande in 1890. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as it advocated the rights of workers.

Theme: Indian National movement

5 / 5

Who founded the Indian National Association in 1876?

A) Surendranath Banerjee and Rabindranath Tagore

B) Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose

C) Ananda Mohan Bose and Gopal Krishna Gokhale

D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Ananda Mohan Bose

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Indian National Association was a pioneering organization in India's struggle for independence. Founded in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose, it was one of the first declared nationalist organizations in British India.
The association's primary objectives were to promote political awareness among Indians, advocate for their rights, and unite the educated middle class. It aimed to build a strong public opinion on political issues and bring about the unity of Indian races and peoples based on common political interests and aspirations.

Some notable features of the Indian National Association include:

Promoting Political Awareness: It worked to raise political consciousness among Indians and encourage public debate on national issues.
Advocating for Rights: The association advocated for greater representation of Indians in legislative councils and government appointments.
Social Reforms: It supported social reforms addressing issues like poverty, education, and women's rights.
Unity: The association fostered unity among various sections of Indian society in the struggle against British rule.

The Indian National Association played a significant role in shaping India's freedom struggle. It laid the groundwork for the emergence of the Indian National Congress in 1885 and influenced subsequent political movements.

Theme: Indian national movement

Your score is

The average score is 40%

UPSC Static Quizzes January 2026 | UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Topic-wise UPSC Prelims Static MCQs & Practice Quizzes for January 2026

Consider the following statements:

What is the primary component of the Earth’s core, located beneath the mantle?

Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Rivers:

Which of the following is a consequence of advection inversion?

Consider the following statements:

Consider the following statements:

What is the primary component of the Earth’s core, located beneath the mantle?

Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Rivers:

Which of the following is a consequence of advection inversion?

Consider the following statements:

Consider the following statements:

Which of the following statements about “ocean salinity” is/are correct?

Which of the following statements about “tides” is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the “trade winds”?

Recently, the Indian Institute of Vegetable Research (IIVR) has developed technology to promote the cultivation of water spinach. Consider the following statements about water spinach :

Consider the following statements about tardigrades :

India’s first ‘teal carbon’ study was undertaken at Keoladeo National Park (KNP). Consider the following statements about teal carbon :

Recently, the BHASKAR initiative was launched. It is related with:

The Chief Economic Advisor of India recently raised concerns about excessive financialisation in the country. Consider the following statements about financialisation and its implications:

India’s 1st silicon carbide manufacturing facility to be set up in Odisha. What is Silicon Carbide (SiC) commonly known as?

Consider the following statements about Organ-on-Chip (OoC) Technology:

Consider the following statements about Neuralink’s Blindsight and Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) technology:

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is working on the Gaganyaan Programme and plans to build the Bhartiya Antriksh Station (BAS). Consider the following statements:

Recently Salar de Atacama was in the news. Where is it located?

Consider the following statements about the 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad and the International Chess Federation (FIDE):

The Mankidia tribe, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Odisha, has recently been granted habitat rights under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. Which of the following statements about the Mankidia tribe is/are correct?

Recently, the “Wood Wide Web” was in the news. What is it related to?

Recently, “J0529–4351” was in the news. It is related to:

Quantum Natural Language Processing (QNLP) is an emerging field that combines quantum computing with natural language processing. Which of the following statements accurately describes a key feature and advantage of QNLP compared to traditional Large Language Models (LLMs)?

Q.1 Which of the following best describes the impact of the Carnatic Wars on British expansion in India?

Q.2 Where was the first Portuguese fort established in India?

Sawai Jai Singh II of Amber is most famous for constructing the:

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