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UPSC Static Quizzes July 2026

Topic-wise UPSC Prelims Static MCQs &
Practice Quizzes for July 2026

UPSC Static Quizzes July 2026 provides topic-wise practice questions and important MCQs for UPSC Prelims preparation. These quizzes help aspirants revise static subjects, improve conceptual clarity, and strengthen exam-oriented preparation. Practice UPSC static GK quizzes regularly to boost accuracy, revision, and performance for the UPSC Civil Services Examination.

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31st July 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding the executive powers of a State Governor:

  1. All executive actions of the State Government are formally expressed in the Governor’s name.
  2. The Governor may remove the State Election Commissioner at his discretion.
  3. The Governor may recommend the imposition of President’s Rule in the State.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding the pardoning powers of the President:

  1. A pardon removes both the sentence and the conviction and frees the convict from all associated disqualifications.
  2. Remission means replacing a severe punishment with a lighter form of punishment.
  3. Respite means reducing the duration of a sentence without changing its nature.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

With reference to contempt of court in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution expressly defines the meaning of contempt of court.
  2. The Supreme Court may punish contempt not only of itself but also of other courts and tribunals functioning in the country.
  3. Prior consent of the Attorney General of India is compulsory in every contempt proceeding.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

4 / 5

Consider the following statements about the Zonal Councils in India:

  1. They are constitutional bodies created under Article 263.
  2. The Prime Minister serves as the common Chairperson of all five Zonal Councils.
  3. The Eastern Zonal Council also includes all the States of Northeast India.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

5 / 5

Which Constitutional Amendment made it mandatory for the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill?

Your score is

The average score is 45%

0%

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30th July 2026 (Medieval History)

1 / 5

During the reign of which Delhi Sultan was Khalisa land expanded on a large scale?

2 / 5

Consider the following literary works:

  1. Amuktamalyada
  2. Maduravijayam
  3. Manucharitam
  4. Jambavati Kalyanam
  5. Ushaparinayam

How many of the above works were written by Krishnadevaraya?

3 / 5

What did the term munjaniq refer to during the medieval period?

4 / 5

Consider the following statements about Indian feudalism during the early medieval period:

  1. Revenue assignments were known as Bhoga.
  2. Hereditary chiefs neither collected revenue nor exercised administrative authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

In which battle did Rana Sanga defeat Sultan Ibrahim Lodi?

Your score is

The average score is 31%

0%

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29th July 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

Which of the following statements regarding tides are correct?

  1. The gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun are primarily responsible for tides.
  2. Spring tides occur during the new moon and full moon.
  3. Neap tides occur when the Sun and the Moon are positioned at right angles with respect to the Earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): A thermocline is an oceanic layer in which temperature falls sharply with increasing depth.

Reason (R): The strong temperature and density differences associated with the thermocline restrict vertical mixing between surface water and deeper water.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which one of the following is not a feature of trade winds?

4 / 5

With reference to the distribution of ocean salinity, consider the following statements:

  1. Ocean salinity is generally high in subtropical regions because evaporation exceeds precipitation.
  2. The Arctic Ocean has relatively low salinity because of river discharge and the melting of ice.
  3. Salinity consistently decreases with increasing depth throughout the open oceans.
  4. The Mediterranean Sea is more saline than the Red Sea.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The Indian summer monsoon is associated with winds blowing from the ocean towards the Indian landmass.

Reason (R): During summer, the Indian landmass heats more rapidly than the adjoining oceans, producing relatively low pressure over the land.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

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28th July 2026 (Art & Culture)

1 / 5

Consider the following differences between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam:

  1. Kuchipudi dancers may occasionally deliver spoken dialogues, whereas Bharatanatyam does not generally include this feature.
  2. Dancing on the edges of a brass plate is a characteristic feature of Bharatanatyam and not Kuchipudi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Which one of the following pairs of rulers and literary works is correctly matched?

3 / 5

The Chishti saint in whose memory the annual ‘Urs’ is organised at Ajmer is:

4 / 5

Tyagaraja is associated with which of the following?

  1. Compositions belonging to the Carnatic musical tradition
  2. Promotion of devotional ideas through music
  3. Development of Hindustani musical forms

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Akal Takht:

  1. It was established by Guru Gobind Singh.
  2. It is situated within the Harmandir Sahib complex in Amritsar.
  3. It was constructed during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
  4. It is the oldest among the five Takhts of Sikhism.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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27th July 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

The duty “to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India” is mentioned under:

2 / 5

The Supreme Court judgment in S. R. Bommai v. Union of India is primarily associated with:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements highlight the importance of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. They promote stability and continuity in the domestic and foreign policies of the government, despite changes in the ruling political party.
  2. They supplement Fundamental Rights by providing a framework for achieving social and economic justice.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

The Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Constitution of India primarily aim to:

5 / 5

Which of the following statements correctly describe the significance of Fundamental Rights?

  1. They form the foundation of a democratic political system.
  2. They create conditions necessary for the material and moral development of individuals.
  3. They act as a strong safeguard for individual liberty.
  4. They promote the establishment of the rule of law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 68%

0%

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25th July 2026 (Economy)

1 / 5

What is the principal objective of the Marginal Standing Facility provided by the RBI?

2 / 5

Which of the following measures can help the government reduce its fiscal deficit?

  1. Increasing revenue expenditure
  2. Raising tax revenue
  3. Disinvesting government holdings in public-sector enterprises
  4. Increasing external commercial borrowings

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Standing Deposit Facility:

  1. It enables the RBI to absorb liquidity without providing government securities as collateral.
  2. Deposits under it are not counted for CRR maintenance but qualify as assets for SLR maintenance.
  3. Banks can access it only when specifically permitted by the RBI.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following correctly defines the Currency-Deposit Ratio?

5 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Treasury Bills:

  1. They provide investors with periodic coupon payments at a fixed rate.
  2. They are auctioned by the RBI on behalf of the Government of India.
  3. They are short-term government securities with a maturity of less than one year.
  4. They are issued by the Government of India to meet short-term funding requirements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 38%

0%

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24th July 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

 Consider the following pairs:

CropSeason
1. MustardKharif
2. MoongRabi
3. GramRabi
4. SoybeanKharif

How many of the pairs given above are not correctly matched?

2 / 5

The following characteristics describe which type of cloud?

  • It occurs at high altitudes.
  • It is thin, detached and hair-like in appearance.
  • It consists mainly of ice crystals.
  • Its precipitation usually evaporates before reaching the ground.

3 / 5

Consider the following pairs:

RiverSource district
1. MahanadiKodagu
2. GodavariNashik
3. KaveriRaipur

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

4 / 5

Consider the following pairs with reference to volcanic landforms:

LandformDescription
1. BatholithDome-shaped intrusive body with a level base
2. LaccolithCooled portion of a magma chamber
3. PhacolithWavy intrusive body found at the base of a syncline or the top of an anticline

How many of the pairs given above are not correctly matched?

5 / 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Coastal Plains of India?

  1. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and broader towards the north and south.
  2. The eastern coastal plains are highly favourable for the formation of both deltas and natural ports.

Select the correct answer:

Your score is

The average score is 38%

0%

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23rd July 2026 (Modern History)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian Press during British India:

  1. The Censorship of Press Act, 1799 was enacted by John Adams and imposed restrictions.
  2. There was rapid growth of newspapers due to the Metcalfe Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Which of the following subjects is associated with the Carlyle Circular during British India?

3 / 5

Consider the following pairs during British India:

Commission purposeName of the Commission
1. FamineHerschell Commission
2. CurrencyStrachey Commission
3. Civil ServicesAitchison Commission

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

4 / 5

State X has joined a Subsidiary Alliance with the British. Which of the following are possible outcomes for State X?

  1. The ruler of State X would lose the power to enter into an alliance with another power independently.
  2. A British Resident would be stationed in State X.
  3. The ruler of State X would not be permitted to maintain an independent armed force.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The reason behind the Khilafat Movement was extra-territorial in nature.
  2. The Treaty of Sèvres outraged the religious sentiments of Muslims.
  3. The suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement negatively affected the Khilafat Movement.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

Your score is

The average score is 31%

0%

0%

22nd July 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to National Emergency under Article 352:

  1. It can be declared on the grounds of internal disturbance.
  2. Freedom guaranteed by Article 19 cannot be suspended by the President without the approval of Parliament.
  3. The proclamation of Emergency requires a special majority, whereas its renewal requires a simple majority.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to Parole and Furlough:

  1. Parole is granted after serving a stipulated number of years, whereas furlough is granted to meet a specific emergency.
  2. The period spent on parole is counted as remission of sentence, but the period of furlough is not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sessions of Parliament:

  1. The President must summon Parliament at least twice every six months.
  2. The power of prorogation rests with the President, whereas the power to adjourn rests with the presiding officer of the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Which of the following provisions were added through a subsequent amendment to the original Anti-Defection Law?

  1. A Member of Parliament disqualified under the law is also disqualified from being appointed as a Minister.
  2. A member of a House disqualified under the law is also disqualified from holding a remunerative political post.
  3. Exemption from disqualification in the case of a merger with another political party.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements with respect to the Ordinance-making power of the Governor:

  1. It comes under the constitutional discretion of the Governor.
  2. The Governor cannot promulgate an Ordinance without instructions from the President when a Bill containing the same provisions would have required the President’s previous sanction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 24%

0%

0%

21st July 2026 (Economy)

1 / 5

How many of the following are included in Gross Capital Formation?

  1. Dairy cattle
  2. Breeding stock
  3. Increase in stock of inventories
  4. Capital outlays of defence enterprises on ordnance
  5. Durable goods in the hands of households

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Small Finance Banks?

  1. They must have a certain percentage of presence in unbanked rural areas.
  2. They have a higher Priority Sector Lending target than scheduled commercial banks.
  3. They may issue passbooks for deposit accounts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements are not correct with respect to the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence?

  1. It was launched in 2022 by the G20.
  2. India is a member.
  3. The Secretariat of GPAI is hosted jointly by India and Japan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Securities and Exchange Board of India:

  1. It was originally constituted as a statutory body.
  2. Insider trading is prohibited by SEBI.
  3. Short selling is permitted for all classes of investors by SEBI.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

5 / 5

Suppose you are a software engineer and have decided to shift to a new domain of work. While looking for a new job, you remain unemployed for a brief period. Under which type of unemployment would you fall?

Your score is

The average score is 29%

0%

0%

20th July 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

With reference to the High Courts in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The President has the power to establish a common High Court for two or more States.
  2. The strength of a High Court is decided by Parliament after consulting the Governor of the concerned State.
  3. A Judge of a High Court is appointed by the President.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019:

  1. It provides citizenship to undocumented persons belonging to the Hindu community from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.
  2. The District-Level Committee scrutinising applications is headed by the Senior Superintendent or Superintendent of Posts.
  3. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 is applicable throughout the country.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Which of the following do not come under the definition of “law” for the purposes of Article 13?

  1. Ordinance
  2. Bye-law
  3. Constitutional amendment
  4. Custom having the force of law

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following matters come under a Money Bill?

  1. Imposition and abolition of a tax
  2. Payment of money into the Consolidated Fund of India
  3. Imposition of fines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Gram Nyayalayas in India:

  1. They are established at the intermediate Panchayat level.
  2. They can try civil cases but not criminal cases.
  3. They are guided by the principles of natural justice rather than formal rules of evidence.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 42%

0%

0%

18th July 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following pairs with reference to the tributaries of the Yamuna:

TributaryType
1. SindRight-bank
2. KenLeft-bank
3. SengarRight-bank
4. HindanLeft-bank

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to copper:

  1. It is the second-largest ferrous metal by usage.
  2. Copper ore in India has an average copper content of around 90%.
  3. It occurs naturally in the Earth’s crust in sulphide deposits but not in carbonate deposits.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

3 / 5

Arrange the following islands from north to south:

  1. Little Nicobar
  2. Little Andaman
  3. South Andaman
  4. Great Nicobar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to Roopkund Lake:

  1. It is located in the Garhwal Himalayas.
  2. It is famous for the preservation of human skeletons.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The deflection of wind towards the left in the Southern Hemisphere is due to the Coriolis force.
  2. A strong pressure gradient occurs where the isobars are closely spaced.
  3. Frictional force is maximum at the sea surface due to the absence of mountains.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

0%

17th July 2026 (Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the National Food Security Act, 2013:

  1. Under the act, around 75% of the population of the Country is legally entitled to receive subsidized foodgrains.
  2. The act has special provisions so as to cause women empowerment.
  3. The identification of beneficiaries is done by the Central government and is a continuous process.
  4. Transportation of foodgrains up to designated depots in the State is the responsibility of the State.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

Which of the following descriptions explains the term “Pent-Up Demand” recently seen in the news?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Export Preparedness Index:

  1. It is released by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  2. The index evaluates the export preparedness of States only but not UTs.
  3. It presents a comprehensive analysis of district-level merchandise export trends.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

4 / 5

Which of the following best describes the term “Reverse Flipping” recently seen in the news?

5 / 5

Which of the following definitions best describes the term “Syndicated Lending” seen sometimes in news?

Your score is

The average score is 31%

0%

0%

16th July 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

Which of the following features of the Constitution are unitary in nature?

  1. Single Constitution
  2. Division of powers between the Centre and States
  3. Independent judicial system
  4. Indestructible States

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to Writs in India:

  1. An application under Habeas Corpus can only be filed by a family member and not by a stranger.
  2. Quo Warranto can be issued when a public office is wrongfully assumed by a private person.
  3. Mandamus can be issued when a corporation has failed to perform its duty.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to temple regulation in India?

  1. Religious endowments and institutions come under the State List.
  2. Christians manage their places of worship and religious institutions through boards or trusts run by the community.
  3. The government exercises considerable control in the case of many Hindu and Buddhist places of worship.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

  1. It seeks to expand the scope of secondary evidence.
  2. It bars courts from inquiring into privileged communication between Ministers and the President of India.
  3. It provides for the admissibility of digital records.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Lokpal in India:

  1. The jurisdiction of the Lokpal includes the President, Prime Minister and Members of Parliament.
  2. A person who is not a resident of India cannot file a complaint before the Lokpal.
  3. One-third of the members of the Lokpal must belong to the SCs, STs, OBCs, minorities and women.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

Your score is

The average score is 43%

0%

0%

15th July 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to Weathering:

  1. It is an ex-situ process.
  2. Weathering is more rapid in temperate regions than in tropical regions due to variation in rainfall.
  3. Exfoliation happens in areas of uniform daily temperatures.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to tertiary activities:

  1. It involves both production and exchange.
  2. Most workers in developed economies are employed in the tertiary sector.
  3. They are not directly engaged in processing physical raw materials.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to Waves:

  1. The water moves in a continuous horizontal direction across the ocean surface.
  2. The largest waves occur in the open oceans.
  3. Slow and steady waves are probably formed by a local wind.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

4 / 5

The term “Pineapple Express”, seen in the news, refers to which of the following phenomena?

5 / 5

Consider the following pairs with reference to local winds:

Local windLocation
1. BayamoChina
2. HaboobTajikistan
3. BergFrance

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Your score is

The average score is 10%

0%

0%

14th July 2026 (Modern History)

1 / 5

Which of the following are not provisions of the Vernacular Press Act, 1878?

  1. A single appeal could be made in a court of law against the magistrate’s action.
  2. Amrita Bazar Patrika was banned under the provisions of this Act.
  3. It ended discrimination between the English and vernacular press.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Which of the following are considered impacts of British rule in India?

  1. Emergence of one-way free trade for British citizens
  2. End of absentee landlordism
  3. Conversion of agriculture into a business enterprise

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the development of education during British rule in India?

  1. A formal education policy was introduced for the first time through the Charter Act of 1833.
  2. Macaulay’s Minute supported English as the medium of instruction.
  3. Wood’s Despatch suggested establishing universities in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following princely states:

  1. Cochin
  2. Mysore
  3. Satara
  4. Nagpur

Which of the following princely states had been annexed by the British using the Doctrine of Lapse?

5 / 5

Which of the following are considered outcomes of the Non-Cooperation Movement?

  1. It accelerated the pace of social reform by weakening caste distinctions.
  2. It demonstrated unity between Hindus and Muslims.
  3. The influence of Indian mill owners increased considerably.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 37%

0%

0%

13th July 2026 (Geography)

1 / 5

Which of the following statements correctly differentiate between P Waves and S Waves?

  1. P waves travel in the direction of wave propagation, whereas S waves travel perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
  2. P waves travel faster than S waves.
  3. The seismic shadow zone of P waves is greater than that of S waves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Which of the following statements correctly differentiate between tropical cyclones and extra-tropical cyclones?

  1. Tropical cyclones have their strongest winds near the surface, while extra-tropical cyclones have them near the tropopause.
  2. Tropical cyclones form only over seas, while extra-tropical cyclones can form over land.
  3. Tropical cyclones move west to east, while extra-tropical cyclones move east to west.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Consider the following pairs:

PassRange
1. BanihalPir Panjal
2. Fotu LaLadakh
3. Khardung LaZanskar

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

4 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Laurentian type of climate:

  1. It exhibits characteristics of both maritime and continental climates.
  2. It is equally present in both hemispheres.
  3. Rainfall occurs throughout the year with a winter maximum.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to La Niña?

  1. Trade winds weaken during La Niña.
  2. It is characterised by below-normal air pressure over the western Pacific.
  3. It has a positive impact on the fishing industry of western South America.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 27%

0%

0%

11th July 2026 (Economy)

1 / 5

How many of the following are included in the Gross Capital Formation?

  1. Dairy cattle
  2. Breeding stock
  3. Increase in stock of inventories
  4. Capital outlays of defence enterprises on ordinance
  5. Durable goods in the hands of the households

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Small Finance Banks?

  1. They must have a certain percentage of presence in unbanked rural areas.
  2. They have a higher Priority Sector Lending target than scheduled commercial banks.
  3. They may issue passbooks for the deposit accounts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Securities and Exchange Board of India:

  1. It was constituted originally as a statutory body.
  2. Insider Trading is completely prohibited by SEBI.
  3. Short selling is permitted for all classes of investors by SEBI.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

4 / 5

Which of the following statements are not correct with respect to the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI)?

  1. It was launched in 2022 by G-20.
  2. India is a member.
  3. The Secretariat of GPAI is hosted by India and Japan together.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Suppose you are a software engineer and you have decided to shift into a new domain of work. While looking for a new job, you were unemployed for a brief period of time. Under which type of the Unemployment, you would fall into?

Your score is

The average score is 37%

0%

0%

10th July 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution:

  1. They are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
  2. They were not part of the original constitution but added by the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act.
  3. All of the Fundamental duties were introduced by a single Constitutional Amendment.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

2 / 5

How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?

SourceFeatures Adopted
JapanJoint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
South AfricaElection of members of Rajya Sabha
AustraliaNomination of members to Rajya Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the National Human Rights Commission in India:

  1. It is a constitutional body.
  2. The salaries and service conditions of the chairperson and other members are determined by the Central Government.
  3. The commission cannot enquire into the human rights violations one year after the occurrence of the incident.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

4 / 5

Which of the following statements come under the Representation of the People Act, 1951?

  1. No person shall be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for any constituency more than once.
  2. Disqualification of a person convicted of an offence punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
  3. No person can publish the result of any exit poll during such a period as notified by the Election Commission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to Finance Commission:

  1. It is a constitutional body.
  2. The recommendations of the Commission are legally binding on the Center.
  3. It is constituted annually by the Centre to decide distribution of funds between Center and States.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

Your score is

The average score is 36%

0%

0%

9th July 2026 (Modern History)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Vaikom Satyagraha:

  1. It was a nonviolent movement against caste discrimination in Kerala.
  2. It was led by leaders including K. Kelappan and T. K. Madhavan.
  3. Mahatma Gandhi supported the movement.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

With reference to Quit India Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. Failure of Wavell’s plan played an important role for the launch of the movement.
  2. The principle of non-violence was strictly adhered to throughout the movement.
  3. Parallel government was established in Satara as a result of the movement.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

With reference to Self Respect Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. It was a reform movement to give non-Brahmins a sense of pride.
  2. Kudi Arasu was the organ of the movement.
  3. It specifically targeted the Brahmanical traditions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

4 / 5

Which of the following proposals are mentioned under Delhi Proposals?

  1. Muslims should get one-fourth representation in the Central Legislature
  2. Sind to be created as a separate province
  3. Muslims to get reservation in proportion of their population even in Punjab and Bengal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Who among the following gave the slogan ‘freedom is my birth-right and I will attain it’?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

0%

8th July 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to National Emergency under Article 352:

  1. It can be declared on the grounds of internal disturbance.
  2. Freedom guaranteed by Article 19 cannot be suspended by the President without the approval of the Parliament.
  3. The proclamation of emergency requires a special majority whereas the renewal requires a simple majority.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to Parole and Furlough:

  1. Parole is granted after serving a stipulated number of years whereas furlough is granted to meet a specific exigency.
  2. Period spent on parole is counted as remission of sentence but the period of furlough is not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sessions of Parliament:

  1. The President must summon Parliament at least twice every six months.
  2. The power of prorogation rests with the President whereas the power to adjourn rests with the presiding officer of the house.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Which of the following statements are added by an additional amendment to the original anti-defection law?

  1. A member of the Parliament who is disqualified under this law shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a Minister.
  2. A member of a House who is disqualified under this law shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post.
  3. Exemption from disqualification in case of merger with another party.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Consider the following statements with respect to the Ordinance making power of Governor:

  1. It comes under constitutional discretion of the Governor.
  2. The Governor cannot make an ordinance without instruction from the President if the bill containing the same provisions would have required the previous sanction of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 10%

0%

0%

7th July 2026 (Art & Culture)

1 / 5

With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries. Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period
  2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music
  3. Dhrupad alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

2 / 5

Which of the following temples is known for its association with the Rath Yatra festival?

3 / 5

With reference to the history of Ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

  1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
  2. Indifference to the authority of Vedas
  3. Denial of the efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Nataraja sculpture:

  1. The oldest free-standing stone sculptures of Nataraja were built by Chola queen Sembiyan Mahadevi.
  2. The four arms of the deity symbolizing creation, destruction, protection, and grace
  3. It symbolises the power of kingship and political dominance

How many of the statements above are correct?

5 / 5

Consider the following information:

FestivalStateTribe
1. HornbillArunachal PradeshNaga
2. BihuAssamAssamese community
3. Chapchar KutTripuraMizo
4. WangalaMeghalayaGaro

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Your score is

The average score is 69%

0%

0%

6th July 2026 (Modern History)

1 / 5

Who among the following were the founders of the Madras Mahajan Sabha?

  1. Veeraraghavachariar
  2. Subramania Iyer
  3. Ananda Charlu

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Carnatic wars in India:

  1. The first Carnatic war ended with the treaty of Peace of Paris.
  2. Godeheu became the French governor-general in India due to Dupleix’s policies in the second carnatic war.
  3. The French regained their supreme political power after the Battle of Wandiwash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Paika Rebellion:

  1. Paika were the peasant militias in Andhra Pradesh.
  2. It was led by the hereditary chief of the militia Baxi Jagabandhu.
  3. It coincided with the revolt of 1857.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

4 / 5

This act ended the system of patronage and introduced the system of open competition as a method of recruitment for civil services. Which of the following acts fits the description given here?

5 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
 Rowlatt Satyagraha was launched against the oppressive Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919.

Statement-II:
 The Rowlatt Act was mainly aimed to suppress political activities.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Your score is

The average score is 34%

0%

0%

4th July 2026 (Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. India is the largest consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
  2. Karnataka is the largest turmeric producing state in India.
  3. India has nearly 30% share of world trade in turmeric.
  4. The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE and USA.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with respect to the Standing Deposit Facility:

  1. It is a tool available to the RBI for absorbing liquidity without any collateral.
  2. It replaces the fixed rate reverse repo (FRRR) as the floor of the liquidity adjustment facility corridor.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Green Deposits:

  1. It is mandatory for the regulated entities to raise a certain percentage of green deposits.
  2. Interest payment is not mandatory in case of Green Deposits so as to improve the Environment.
  3. The green activities financed using them cannot be classified under priority sector lending.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

4 / 5

 Consider the following lending instruments:

  1. Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust
  2. Resilience and Sustainability Trust
  3. Stand-by Credit Facility
  4. Rapid Credit Facility
  5. Extended Fund Facility

How many of the above lending instruments come under the purview of the International Monetary Fund?

5 / 5

 Consider the following statements:

  1. A Vostro account is held in a foreign currency at a bank located in another country.
  2. A Nostro account is an account that a domestic bank maintains for a foreign bank in the domestic bank’s currency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

0%

3rd July 2026 (Polity)

1 / 5

With reference to the Uniform Civil Code, consider the following statements:

  1. It has provisions detailed in Article 46 of the Constitution.
  2. It comes under Part IV of the Constitution.
  3. Currently, there is no uniform code in any of the civil matters.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

2 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the administration of Scheduled areas and Tribal areas:

  1. The provisions related to it are mentioned in Part X of the Constitution.
  2. The Governor can make a law regulating the allotment of land to Scheduled Tribe members in the Scheduled Area.
  3. The power to amend the fifth schedule rests with the State Legislature.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Schedules of the Constitution:

  1. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution was added by the First Amendment Act of 1951.
  2. The distribution of Rajya Sabha seats among the states and union territories is covered in the First Schedule.
  3. Fourth Schedule provides for the division of powers to make laws between the Centre and State.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

4 / 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Attorney General of India:

  1. The term of office and remuneration of the Attorney General of India is mentioned in the Constitution.
  2. The Attorney General of India has the right to take part as well as vote in the proceedings of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Post Office Act, 2023?

  1. According to the act the Post Office shall provide such services as the State Government may prescribe.
  2. The Post Office shall have the exclusive privilege of issuing postage stamps.
  3. The Central Government may prescribe standards for addressing on the items, address identifiers and usage of postcodes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 35%

0%

0%

2nd July 2026 (Modern Indian History)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The reason for the Khilafat Movement was extraterritorial in nature.
  2. Treaty of Sevres outraged the religious sentiments of the Muslims.
  3. Suspension of the non-cooperation movement negatively impacted the Khilafat Movement.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

2 / 5

State X has joined a subsidiary alliance with the British. Which of the following are the possible outcomes for State X?

  1. The ruler of State X would automatically lose the power to enter into alliance with any other power.
  2. A British resident would be stationed at State X.
  3. Ruler of State X would not be allowed to have his independent armed force.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following subjects is associated with the Carlyle Circular during British India?

4 / 5

Consider the following pairs during the British India:

Commission purposeName of the Commission
1. FamineHerschell Commission
2. CurrencyStrachey Commission
3. Civil servicesAitchison Commission

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

5 / 5

Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian Press during British India:

  1. Censorship of Press Act, 1799 was enacted by John Adams imposing restrictions.
  2. There was a rapid growth of newspapers due to the Metcalfe Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 32%

0%

0%

1st July 2026 (Economy)

1 / 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
 A large positive GDP gap generally signifies that an economy is at the risk of high inflation.

Statement-II:
 Positive GDP gap shows that an economy is operating at less than its full potential.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

2 / 5

The Funds for Regional Rural Banks may come from which of the following Sources?

  1. SIDBI
  2. National Housing Bank
  3. Deposits

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Which of the following components come under Marketable securities in Internal Debt?

  1. Cash Management Bills
  2. Treasury Bills
  3. Floating rate dated securities
  4. Securities issued to international financial institutions
  5. Special Central Government securities issued to National Small Savings Fund

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Consider the following pairs:

GI TAGSTATE
1. Maibra Jou BidwiArunachal Pradesh
2. Pachra RignaiAssam
3. Matabari PedaUttar Pradesh

How many of the Pairs given above are correctly matched?

5 / 5

Which of the statements correctly differentiates between Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (WPI)?

  1. CPI is compiled by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry whereas WPI is compiled by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
  2. CPI includes the price of services also but WPI does not.
  3. CPI excludes the basic and intermediates while WPI includes commodities in their basic forms.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 35%

0%

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