Advanced Quiz – 15 October 2026 | General Studies

Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: AgriStack is a key component of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure for agriculture. It supports the development of digital farmer identities, crop-related databases and technology-enabled agricultural services.

Statement 2 is correct: The National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS) uses artificial intelligence and digital technologies to assist in pest identification, monitoring and dissemination of timely advisories.

Statement 3 is incorrect: YES-TECH stands for Yield Estimation System based on Technology. It uses technologies such as remote sensing and modelling to support crop-yield estimation under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana. Electronic agricultural trading is primarily associated with e-NAM.

Statement 4 is correct: The Krishi Decision Support System integrates satellite imagery, weather information, soil-related data and other datasets to support agricultural planning, crop monitoring and assessment.

Additional Information:

• The Digital Agriculture Mission was approved in 2024 to strengthen digital agricultural infrastructure and services.
• AgriStack includes components such as the Farmers’ Registry, Geo-Referenced Village Maps and Crop Sown Registry.
• CROPIC uses geotagged crop photographs to support crop monitoring and damage assessment.
• WINDS (Weather Information Network and Data System) supports access to hyperlocal weather information.
• The UN Global Initiative on AI for Agri-Food Systems is coordinated by the International Telecommunication Union in collaboration with FAO, IFAD and WFP.

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The UAPA was enacted in 1967 to address unlawful activities affecting India’s sovereignty and territorial integrity. Its original framework primarily concerned unlawful associations and activities rather than the comprehensive anti-terrorism provisions introduced later.

Statement 2 is correct: The UAPA (Amendment) Act, 2004 introduced substantial provisions relating to terrorist acts, terrorist organisations and associated offences, following the repeal of the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002.

Statement 3 is correct: The 2019 amendment empowered the Central Government to designate individuals, in addition to organisations, as terrorists under the statutory framework.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The UAPA contains special provisions allowing an extension of the investigation period up to 180 days in specified circumstances, subject to statutory safeguards and judicial authorisation. Therefore, an unconditional right to bail after 90 days does not exist in every UAPA case.

Additional Information:

• The Sixteenth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 introduced sovereignty and integrity of India as a ground for reasonable restrictions under Article 19.
• Section 15 of the UAPA defines a terrorist act.
• Section 43D(5) imposes stringent restrictions on bail for specified offences under Chapters IV and VI.
• In NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali (2019), the Supreme Court explained the limited scope of judicial examination of prosecution material at the statutory bail stage.
• In Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021), the Supreme Court held that constitutional courts may grant bail where prolonged incarceration and trial delays violate Article 21, notwithstanding statutory restrictions.
• The National Investigation Agency was established under the NIA Act, 2008.

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: PM GatiShakti was launched on 13 October 2021 to strengthen coordinated infrastructure development, multimodal connectivity and logistics efficiency.

Statement 2 is correct: The National Master Plan uses a GIS-based digital platform to integrate information on transport networks, economic zones, geographical features and other infrastructure-related datasets.

Statement 3 is correct: The Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS), chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, provides oversight and coordination for the implementation of PM GatiShakti.

Statement 4 is incorrect: PM GatiShakti follows a whole-of-government approach involving Central Ministries, Departments, States and Union Territories. It is not restricted to Central Government projects.

Additional Information:

• The seven infrastructure engines are roads, railways, ports, waterways, airports, mass transport and logistics infrastructure.
• The Network Planning Group examines infrastructure proposals to promote integrated planning and coordination.
• The Technical Support Unit provides technical and analytical assistance.
• The Unified Logistics Interface Platform facilitates integration of logistics-related digital systems through APIs.
• The National Logistics Policy was launched in September 2022.
• Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya, located in Vadodara, Gujarat, was established as a Central University in 2022 with a focus on transport and logistics.

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: BIMSTEC was established on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. It was initially known as BIST-EC, comprising Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand.

Statement 2 is incorrect: BIMSTEC does not include all SAARC members. Afghanistan, Pakistan and Maldives are not members of BIMSTEC.

Statement 3 is correct: The BIMSTEC Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.

Statement 4 is correct: Both Thailand and Myanmar are members of BIMSTEC, which connects South Asia with Southeast Asia.

Additional Information:

• BIMSTEC has seven members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand.
• Myanmar joined in 1997, while Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004.
• The BIMSTEC Charter was adopted at the Fifth BIMSTEC Summit in Colombo in 2022 and entered into force in May 2024.
• India leads cooperation in BIMSTEC’s Security sector, including counter-terrorism and transnational crime.
• BIMSTEC differs from SAARC because it includes Myanmar and Thailand but excludes Pakistan.
• The first BIMSTEC Home Ministers’ Meeting in October 2026 adopted the Delhi Declaration, emphasising cooperation against terrorism, human trafficking and transnational organised crime.

Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types is the principal cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a group of viruses, some of which are associated with cancer development.

Statement 2 is correct: HPV types 16 and 18 are responsible for approximately 70% of cervical cancer cases worldwide.

Statement 3 is correct: CERVAVAC is India’s indigenously developed quadrivalent HPV vaccine manufactured by the Serum Institute of India. It targets HPV types 6, 11, 16 and 18.

Statement 4 is incorrect: WHO prequalification evaluates whether a vaccine meets international standards of quality, safety and efficacy for procurement purposes. It does not automatically constitute national marketing authorisation in every country.

Additional Information:

• HPV types 6 and 11 are primarily associated with genital warts, while types 16 and 18 are major high-risk oncogenic types.
• HPV vaccines are preventive vaccines; they do not treat existing HPV infections or HPV-related cancers.
• CERVAVAC received WHO prequalification effective 25 September 2026, according to the current-affairs report.
• WHO’s global cervical cancer elimination strategy includes the 90–70–90 targets for 2030:
  • 90% of girls fully vaccinated against HPV by age 15.
  • 70% of women screened with a high-performance test by ages 35 and 45.
  • 90% of women identified with cervical disease receive appropriate treatment.
• WHO prequalification facilitates vaccine procurement by international agencies, including UNICEF, subject to applicable procurement requirements.