Basic Quiz – 15 October 2026 | Polity

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to every person within the territory of India. It applies to both citizens and non-citizens.

Statement 2 is correct: The six freedoms under Article 19(1), including freedom of speech and expression, peaceful assembly, association, movement, residence and profession, are guaranteed only to Indian citizens.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty against unconstitutional legislative as well as executive action. In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the procedure established by law must be fair, just and reasonable.

Additional Information:

• Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12–35).
• Article 15 prohibits discrimination on specified grounds and is principally available to citizens.
• Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offences and applies to all persons.
• Article 21A guarantees free and compulsory education to children aged 6–14 years.
• Article 32 guarantees the right to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Correct Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV of the Constitution, covering Articles 36–51.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 37, DPSPs are not enforceable by any court. However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country, and the State has a duty to apply them while making laws.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 40 directs the State to organise village panchayats and provide them with powers and authority necessary to function as units of self-government.

Statement 4 is correct: The Directive Principles were primarily inspired by the Irish Constitution.

Additional Information:

• Article 39A: Equal justice and free legal aid.
• Article 44: Uniform Civil Code for citizens.
• Article 45: Early childhood care and education for children below six years.
• Article 48A: Protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
• Article 50: Separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
• In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court emphasised harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 79 provides that Parliament consists of the President and two Houses: the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 83(1), the Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution. As nearly as possible, one-third of its members retire every second year.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 109, a Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

Statement 4 is correct: Under Article 110(3), the Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill. This constitutional decision-making power is not completely immune from judicial review.

Additional Information:

• Article 80: Composition of the Rajya Sabha.
• Article 81: Composition of the Lok Sabha.
• Article 108: Joint sitting of Parliament.
• Article 109: Special procedure relating to Money Bills.
• Article 110: Definition of a Money Bill.
• Article 111: President’s assent to Bills.
• The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days, with or without recommendations.
• The Lok Sabha may accept or reject the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
• There is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve disagreements over a Money Bill.

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 54, the electoral college comprises elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. For this purpose, the term ‘State’ includes the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Nominated members of Parliament do not participate in the presidential election. Only elected members of the specified legislative bodies are eligible to vote.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 55 provides for election by proportional representation through the single transferable vote, with voting conducted by secret ballot.

Statement 4 is correct: Under Article 56, the President holds office for five years from the date of entering office. However, the President continues to hold office until a successor enters office.

Additional Information:

• Article 52: Office of the President of India.
• Article 53: Executive power of the Union.
• Article 54: Election of the President.
• Article 55: Manner of election.
• Article 56: Term of office.
• Article 58: Qualifications for election.
• Article 61: Procedure for impeachment.
• Article 72: Pardoning powers of the President.
• The minimum age required to become President is 35 years.
• A person is eligible for re-election as President.

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 368 provides for Parliament’s constituent power and the procedure for amending the Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: A Constitution Amendment Bill may be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. It cannot be introduced in a State Legislature.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures is required only for amendments affecting specified federal provisions, such as the election of the President, the distribution of legislative powers and the representation of States in Parliament.

Statement 4 is correct: There is no provision for a joint sitting of Parliament in the case of a deadlock over a Constitution Amendment Bill. Both Houses must pass the Bill separately by the required majority.

Additional Information:

• Amendments under Article 368 require a special majority: a majority of the total membership of each House and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting.
• Certain constitutional changes can be made by a simple majority of Parliament and are not treated as amendments under Article 368.
• Amendments affecting specified federal provisions additionally require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
• The President must give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill duly passed in accordance with Article 368.
• In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court established the Basic Structure Doctrine.
• Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot destroy or abrogate its basic structure.